CBSE 10th Result 2022: Results to be Expected by July 4

CBSE 10th Result 2022: Results to be declared soon; Check date, websites and other details

 

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) this year conducted its Class 10th and 12th examination in two terms. The Term 1 exam was held in November-December 2021 while the Term 2 exam was held in April 2022.

 

CBSE 10th Result 2022: The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) Board 10th Term 2 exam was over on 24 May 2022. The result will be available on the official website of the Central Board of Secondary Education. Although there has been no official announcement about the result date students are eagerly waiting for their results.

 

The CBSE this year conducted its Class 10th and 12th examination in two terms. The Term 1 exam was held in November-December 2021 while the Term 2 exam was held in April 2022.

 

The examinations were being held in an online form for the last two years. Earlier, the board had decided to cancel the physical examination for Class 10, due to rising Covid-19 cases. CBSE opted for an alternate formula of assessment and as a result, all the students were promoted to the next class.

 

Evaluation process completed

 

The CBSE Board had set May 31 as the last date to upload the marks of term 1 and term 2 practical exams, project work and internal assessment marks of students of Class 10 while it was June 5 for Class 12.

Thus, the students who wrote the examination can expect the results anytime soon.

 

Live Result link for class 10 Result 2021

Link 1

 

Solved Social Science Sample Paper Class 10 Term 2

Social Science Sample Paper Class 10 Term 2

 

Time Allowed: 2 Hours /Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:
i. This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
ii. All questions are compulsory.
iii. Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
v. Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
vii. Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

 

SECTION-A
Very Short Answer Questions 2 x 5 =10

1. How did the Non-Cooperation Movement unfold in the cities and towns of India?

Show Answer

(i) The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities.
(ii) Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and college.
(iii) Many teachers resigned.
(iv) Lawyers gave up their legal practices.
(v) The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.
(vi) Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth
burnt in huge bonfires.

2. Why is tourism considered as a trade?

Show Answer

(i) Foreign tourist’s arrival in the country contributing to foreign exchange.
(ii) Many people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
(iii) Tourism provides support to local handicrafts.
(iv) Tourists visit India for medical tourism, eco-tourism, adventure tourism,
cultural tourism and business tourism
(v) Any other relevant point.

3. Differentiate between one party and two party system.

Show Answer

One Party System
(i) Countries where only one party is allowed to control and run the government are called one party system.
(ii) Eg. In China only Communist Party is allowed to rule.

Two Party System
(i) Countries where only two main parties contest elections are called Two Party System.
(ii) The United States of America and United Kingdom are examples of Two Party System.

 

4. State the role of Reserve Bank of India.

Show Answer

(i) In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.
(ii) The RBI supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.
(iii) The RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance.
(iv) The RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators.

 

5. Read the data in the table given below and answer the questions that follow:

Total production of finished steel in India
Year Production (in million tonnes)
2015-2016 106.60
2016-2017 120.14
2017-2018 126.85
2018-2019 101.29
2019-2020 102.62

Source: Ministry of Steel, Government of India (NCERT)

5.1 Compare the 2015-2016 and 2019-2020 data and give any one reason for the reduction of production of steel in 2019-2020. 

Show Answer

(i) High costs
(ii) Limited availability of coking coal
(iii) Lower productivity of labour
(iv) Irregular supply of energy

5.2 Why is production and consumption of steel considered as an index of a country’s development? 

Show Answer

(i) The steel products are used as a raw material in different industries.
(ii) It is required for export.
(iii) It provides machinery for ensuring country’s growth.

 

Section-B
Short Answer Type Questions 3 x 3 =9

6. Why do most of the rural households still remain dependent on the informal sources of credit? Explain.

Show Answer

(i) Limited availability of Banks in rural areas.
(ii) People in the rural areas face problem with regard to documentation.
(iii) Absence of collateral is one of the major reasons which prevents the poor from getting bank loans.
(iv) Rural people get easy loans from the richer households through informal ways

OR

How do Self Help Groups help borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of collateral? Explain.

Show Answer

(i) People can get timely loans for a variety of purposes and at a reasonable interest rate.
(ii) SHGs are regular in their savings which can be used as monetary help.
(iii) Members can take small loans without collateral to meet their needs.
(iv) Due to timely repayment banks also lend loans to SHGs.

 

7. “Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of  swaraj in another way and participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement differently.” Justify the statement.

Show Answer

(i) Spread of militant guerrilla movement in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh.
(ii) They were against colonial policies.
(iii) Their livelihood was affected and their traditional rights were denied.
(iv) Their leader Alluri Sitaram Raju was inspired by the Non Cooperation Movement and persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking.
(v) He wanted liberation by the use of force.
(vi) The rebels attacked police stations and carried on guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj.

 

8. Examine the role of Political Parties in a democratic country. 

Show Answer

(i) Parties form and run governments.
(ii) Parties play a decisive role in making policies for the country.
(iii) They recruit leaders and train them.
(iv) Parties that lose the election form the opposition.
(v) Parties shape public opinion.
(vi) Parties provide the common man access to government machinery and welfare schemes.

 

Section-C
Long Answer Type Questions 5 x 2 =10

9. Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.’ Support the statement with examples.

Show Answer

(i) Democracy ensures that decision making will be based on norms and procedure.
(ii) Every citizen has the right and means to examine the process of decision making.
(iii) Democratic governments are accountable, legitimate and transparent governments.
(iv) People have the right to choose their rulers.
(v) Democracy gives its citizens the right to information about the government and its functioning.
(vi)A democratic government is the people’s own government and it is run by the people

 

OR

‘There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy in South Asia.’ Support the statement with examples.

Show Answer

(i) Democratic government is peoples own government.
(ii) Countries from South Asia want democratic rights for people.
(iii) Countries want to elect their representatives by themselves.
(iv) Democracy provides dignity and freedom to its citizens.
(v) Democracy accommodates social diversity.
(vi) Democracy is based on the idea of discussion and negotiation.
(vi) Eg. India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Pakistan

 

 

10. Examine the role of Information Technology in stimulating the process of globalization.

Show Answer

(i) Technology has been changing rapidly.
(ii) Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones, fax) are used to contact and access information.
(iii) Helps to communicate from remote areas.
(iv) Development of satellite communication devices.
(v) Computers have now entered almost every field of activity.
(vi) One can obtain and share information through internet.
(vii) Electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible costs
(viii) Has played a major role in spreading out production of services across countries

OR

Assess the impact of globalization on India and its people.

Show Answer

(i) Globalization has resulted in more choices for the consumers
(ii) This has improved the standard of living of people
(iii) MNCs have increased their investments in industries such as cell-phones, automobiles, electronics, soft drinks, etc.
(iv) New jobs have been created.
(v) Some local companies that supply raw materials to MNCs have also benefited.
(vi) Some local companies have been able to invest in newer technology and production methods.
(vii) Globalisation has enabled some large companies such as Tata Motors, Infosys to emerge as multi-national companies.
(viii) Companies providing services have also benefited by globalisation.
(ix) Flexibility in labour laws
(x) Expansion of unorganised sector
(xi) Stiff competition to the local producers

 

Section-D
Case Based Questions 4 x 2 =8

11. Read the given text and answer the following questions:

‘It is said of “passive resistance” that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive resistance; indeed, it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not passive but active …
‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction … In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will whatever.
‘Satyagraha is pure soul-force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of love. … Nonviolence is the supreme dharma …‘It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war-god and they can all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of
arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own …’

11.1. Why did Gandhiji consider nonviolence as supreme dharma?

Show Answer

Gandhiji adopted nonviolence as a philosophy and an ideal way of life. According to him philosophy of nonviolence is not a weapon of the weak; it is a weapon, which can be tried by all

 

11.2 How was Gandhian satyagraha taken by the people who believed in his philosophy? 

Show Answer

A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction. In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will

 

11.3 Why was Gandhian satyagraha considered as a novel way to resist injustice?

Show Answer

(i) One could win the battle through nonviolence.
(ii) This could be done by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
(iii) People – including the oppressors – had to be persuaded to see the truth, instead of being forced to accept truth through the use of violence.
(iv) Any other relevant point

 

12. Read the given text and answer the following questions:
Ever since humans appeared on the earth, they have used different means of communication. But, the pace of change, has been rapid in modern times. Long distance communication is far easier without physical movement of the communicator or receiver. Personal communication and mass communication including television, radio, press, films, etc. are the major means of communication in the country. The Indian postal network is the largest in the world. It handles parcels as well as personal written communications. Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail and are airlifted between stations covering both land and air. The second-class mail includes book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals. They are carried by surface mail, covering land and water transport. To facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities, six mail channels have been introduced recently. They are called Rajdhani Channel, Metro Channel, Green Channel, Business Channel, Bulk Mail Channel and Periodical Channel.

12.1 Examine the role of the Indian postal network.

Show Answer

(i) It has helped the country to engage in communication and social-economic development.
(ii) It provides various facilities like speed post, business post, registered post, ordinary post

 

12.2 Differentiate between mass communication and personal communication.

Show Answer

Mass Communication is the medium which provides entertainment as well as creates awareness among the masses. It includes radio, television, newspapers, magazines, books, films etc. whereas Personal Communication is between person to person.

 

12.3 Analyse the significance of communication for a nation.

Show Answer

(i) This is the age of communication using the telephone, television, films, and the Internet.
(ii) Even books, magazines and newspapers are important means of communication.
(iii) Various means of communication have connected the world closer
(iv) It is the source of entertainment and knowledge.

 

Section-E
Map Skill Based Question 1 x 3=3

13.

13.1 On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(A)The place where Non Cooperation Movement was called off due to violence.

13.2 On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(I) Namrup Thermal Plant
OR
Noida Software Technology Park
(II) Raja Sansi (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee) International Airport

CBSE has invited applications for the Single Girl Child Merit Scholarship

CBSE has invited applications for the Single Girl Child Merit Scholarship. Students would be able to apply for the same on cbse.gov.in.  Details here.

Key Highlights

 

    • Online application for the Merit Scholarship Scheme for Single Girl Child has been invited by the Central Board of Secondary Education or CBSE.
    • Candidates should note that they would be able to apply for the scholarship till January 17 on cbse.gov.in.

Central Board of Secondary Education or CBSE has invited online applications from eligible students for the Merit Scholarship Scheme for Single Girl Child. Students who have passed their class 10 examination from CBSE affiliated schools, would be able to apply for the scholarship. More detailed information about the scholarship can be found on the official website-cbse.gov.in. 

Candidates should further note that along with fresh applications, CBSE has also invited applications for renewal of the Single Girl Child Scholarship X 2020. Details about the renewal of the scholarship as well as the detailed eligibility criteria to apply for the scholarships can be found here. Important dates and other details can be found here.

CBSE Merit Scholarship Scheme for Single Girl Child Dates

Event Date
Online application process starts December 27, 2021
Candidates can apply till January 17, 2022
Online application to be verified by schools from December 31, 2021
Schools would verify online applications till January 25, 2022

CBSE Merit Scholarship Scheme for Single Girl Child: Steps to Apply

 

Follow Steps:

1. Go to the official website-cbse.gov.in. 

2. Now click on the Scholarship link. A new window would open up.

3. Candidates would now find a notification that says, “Single Girl Child Scholarship – 2021 (Fresh Application)” or  “CBSE Merit Scholarship Scheme for Single Girl Child of Class X – Renewal” as per need.

4. A new window would open up.

5. Candidates should now fill the application form with the necessary details.

6. Candidates should keep a copy of the application form for necessary details.

 

Candidates should note that the scholarship amount would be Rs 500 per month. The amount would be transferred to candidates via NEFT or ECS. Further, a scholarship awarded once to candidates under the scheme, would be paid for a duration of two years. Candidates are advised to keep a check on the official website for more details.

CBSE Class 10, 12 Term 1 Result 2022: Expected in January – 5

CBSE Result for Term 1 exam is likely in first half of January itself.

 

Central Board of Secondary Education, CBSE Class 10, 12 Term 1 Result 2022 are expected to be released soon after the end of the board examinations. Class 10 Term 1 board exams have already ended. As for Class 12, a few vocational subject examinations are still pending and scheduled to end by December 29. Meanwhile, the board has started collecting the internal examination data and collating the results. Here are 5 important things students ought to know about their term 1 result.

As for when would the result be released, the board has not shared any dates. Schools were informed that the marks of the students and results would be shared soon after completion. Experts are expecting CBSE to announce the results in 10 days’ time, by January 10, 2022. The board, however, is yet to make an announcement. Here are important points students ought to know about their result.

CBSE Term 1 Result 2022: 5 important things to know about Class 10, 12 Board result for December Exams

 

1. No student to be ‘failed’. CBSE would not be failing any student at this point. All students would only be given the marks that they have received in the term 1 examination. Pass or fail would be awarded based on overall performance of the child in Term 1 and Term 2 combined.

 

2. Term 1 would hold a minimum 50% weightage in the final CBSE Class 10, 12 Result 2022 – the ratio in which it would be used, however, depends on the mode of the Term 2 examination. The result calculation formula would be shared by the board in due course of time.

 

3. Marks of the offline MCQ based term 1 exam and the internal assessment would be combined and shared by the board – students should remember that the MCQ was only for the theory portion. Students would be awarded marks out of 50 for Term 1, which would also include the internal assessment marks given by schools to the students in the various subjects.

 

4. Students who have missed the examination would not be given any average marks at the time. Instead, they would be marked absent for Term 1. In the final result, however, how the students would be awarded marks is not clear. Some experts have suggested that CBSE is likely to give students marks based on their performance in Term 2 plus the internal marks awarded to them. This, however, is not clear as yet and final decision would be taken by the board.

 

5. CBSE Mark sheet for Term 1 examination is not likely to be shared by the board as yet. It is expected that the board would only release the result for the students and share the final marksheet after Term 2 examination.

 

As for the Term 2 examination, the board is expected to conduct the subjective examination – conditions remaining conducive, in the month of April and May. The examination – if conducted subjective, would be of 2 hours duration and would include MCQ based questions as well as long form and case study based questions. Only Term 2 Syllabus would be included in the April- May examination. Date sheet for the April examination is likely only by end of January or early February 2022.

CBSE to begin registration for classes 9, 11 from December 15, official notice on cbse.gov.in

CBSE to begin registration for classes 9, 11 from December 15

CBSE to begin registration for classes 9, 11 | December 15

Key Highlights

    • CBSE will begin the registration process for class 9, 11 students from December 15, 2021.
    • This registration is mandatory for students to appear in class 10, 12 board exams for the next academic year.
    • The official notice with all details is given on cbse.gov.in.

 

Central Board of Secondary Education, CBSE would commence the registration process for classes 9 and 11 from December 15, 2021. As per the official notice released on cbse.gov.in, this registration is extremely important for students to be able to appear in Class 10, 12 board exams.

CBSE has said that only those students will be allowed to appear in classes 10, 12 board exams, whose names and details have been submitted by respective schools. However, before schools begin submitting these details, they must also register themselves on the portal that has been made available for this purpose.

CBSE schools have also been instructed to use their affiliation situs judi slot online gampang menang numbers as User Id while registering for online submission. In case there are schools that have recently been affiliated, they must get in touch with the regional offices of the Board to get their school code and password in order to proceed with the online submission of details.

The registration of students of classes 9 and 11 also has parents’ role. According to the official notice by CBSE, schools must convey the students’ personal details to parents to cross-check them. This step is important as CBSE has done away with the practice of editing/correcting particulars from this year.

 

CBSE has said that it is solely the school’s responsibility to submit the correct details. They must also be submitted in one lot for each fee slab. With this, the partial submission of data will not be allowed and this would then end up meaning that in each slot, only one list of students will be accepted.

 

All CBSE schools and school heads are advised to go through the detailed set of instructions slot online issued by the Board. They have been given in advance so that everyone can properly understand them and fetch students’ details accordingly.

MCQ Alternating Current Circuit Class 12 Physics Chapter 7

MCQ Alternating Current Circuit Class 12 Physics Chapter 7

 

1. In an ac circuit, V and I are given by V = 100 sin (100t) Volt, mA. The power dissipated in the circuit is

a) 104 watt

b) 10 watt

c)2.5 watt

d)5 watt

Ans: c)2.5 watt

P = Vrms Irms Cos θ

 

2. An alternating e.m.f. is applied to purely capacitive circuit. The phase relation between e.m.f. and current flowing in the circuit is

a) e.m.f. is ahead of current by  / 2

b) Current is ahead of e.m.f. by  / 2

c) Current lags behind e.m.f. by 

d) Current is ahead of e.m.f. by 

Ans: b) Current is ahead of e.m.f. by  / 2

 

3. Voltage and current in an ac circuit are given by V = 5 sin (100πt – 300) and I = 4 sin (100πt + 300)

a) Voltage leads the current by o 30

b) Current leads the voltage by o 30

c) Current leads the voltage by o 60

d) Voltage leads the current by o 60

Ans: c) Current leads the voltage by o 60

 

4. The given figure shows the variation of V and I vs t for a circuit element connected to A.C mains. Name the circuit element

a) Resistance

b) Capacitor

c) Inductor

d) Alternator

Ans: b) Capacitor

 

5.In a series LCR Series circuit, the voltages across Inductor, capacitor and Resistances are 20V,20V,40V respectively. The phase difference between the supplied voltage and current in the circuit is

a) 300

b) 600

c) 900

d) 00

Ans: d) 00
Since voltage across Inductor and slot online yang sering kasih jackpot capacitor are same, circuit is in resonance. Phase difference is 00

6. If an 8  resistance and 6  reactance are present in an ac series circuit then the impedance of the circuit will be

a) 20 ohm

b) 5 ohm

c) 10 ohm

d) 14 2 ohm

Ans: c) 10 ohm

 

7. The graphs given below depict the dependence of two reactive impedances X1 and X2 on the frequency of the alternating e.m.f. applied individually to them. We can then say that

a) X1 is an inductor and judi slot online jackpot terbesar X2 is a capacitor

b) X1 is a resistor and X2 is a capacitor

c) X1 is a capacitor and X2 is an inductor

d) X1 is an inductor and X2 is a resistor

Ans: c) X1 is a capacitor and X2 is an inductor

For capacitor, Capacitative Reactance is inversely proportional to frequency and For Inductor, Inductive Reactance is directly proportional to frequency

 

8. In the circuit given below, what will be the reading of the voltmeter

a)200V

b) 100 V

c) 300V

d) 400V

Ans: a) 200V
V2 = VR
2 + (VL-Vc)2

 

9. A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X, If the capacitance and frequency become double, then reactance will be

a) 4X

b) X/2

c) X/4

d) 2x

Ans: c) X/4
X α (1/fC)

 

10. A capacitor acts as an infinite resistance for

a) DC

b) AC

c) Both DC and as well as AC

d) Neither for AC nor DC

Ans: a)DC

 

11. High Voltage transmission line is preferred as

a) its electric appliances are less costly

b) Thin power cables are required

c) Idle current is low

d) Power losses is low

Ans: d) Power losses is low

 

12. In a series LR circuit, XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P1 . When capacitor with capacitance C is such that is put in series, the power factor becomes P2 . The ratio of P1/P2 is

a) 2:1

b) 1: √2

c) √2 : 1

d) 1: 2
Ans: b) 1: √2

 

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:

a) If both assertion and reason are true, the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

b) If both assertion and reason are true, the reason is the not correct explanation of the assertion

c) If assertion is true but reason is false

d) If the assertion and reason both are false

 

13. Assertion : An inductance and a resistance are connected in series with an ac circuit. In this
circuit the current and the potential difference across the resistance lag behind potential difference across
the inductance by an angle /2.
Reason : In LR circuit voltage leads the current by phase angle which depends on the value of
inductance and resistance both.

Ans: b

 

14. Assertion : A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in an ac circuit in place of the choke coil.
Reason : A capacitor blocks dc and allows ac only.

Ans: b

15. Assertion : Capacitor serves as a block for dc and offers an easy path to ac.
Reason : Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency.

Ans: a

16. Assertion : When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive reactance in LCR current, e.m.f.
leads the current .
Reason : The phase angle is the angle between the alternating e.m.f. and alternating current of the
circuit.

Ans: b
17. Assertion: Direct current is more dangerous than Alternating current of same value.
Reason: An electrocuted person sticks to direct current line. While alternating current repels the person
from the line.

Ans: d

18. Assertion: A transformer can’t work on DC supply
Reason — DC changes neither in magnitude nor in direction

Answer – A

 

CASE STUDY EXPERIMENT:
According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, there will be an EMF induced in the second winding. If the circuit of this secondary winding is closed, then a current will flow through it. This is the basic working principle of a transformer.
A transformer that increases voltage between the primary to secondary windings is defined as a step-up transformer. Conversely, a transformer that decreases voltage between the primary to secondary windings
is defined as a step-down transformer.
Ideal transformer is not very practical. This is because in the open air only a very tiny portion of the flux produced from the first coil will link with the second coil. So the current that flows through the closed circuit connected to the secondary winding will be extremely small (and difficult to measure).
The rate of change of flux linkage depends upon the amount of linked flux with the second winding. So ideally almost all of the flux of primary winding should link to the secondary winding. This is effectively and efficiently done by using a core type transformer. This provides a low reluctance path common to both of the windings.

19. If the supply frequency of a transformer increases, the secondary output voltage of the transformer

a) Increase

b) Decrease

c) Remains the same

d) any of the above

 

Ans.(c) Remain the same

 

20. Which quantity is increased in step-down transformer ?

a) resistance

b) power

c) current

D) charge

Ans: c

 

21. The voltage in the secondary coil of a transformer does not depend upon

a) Frequency of the source

b) Voltage in Primary

c) Ratio of no. of turns in the two coils

d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans: a

22. The primary winding of transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to an ac supply of 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an output of

a) 200 V, 50 Hz

b) 2 V, 50 Hz

c) 200 V, 500 Hz

d) 2 V, 5 Hz

Ans: (a)

23. The magnitude of the emf induced across the secondary of a transformer does not depend on

a) the magnitude of the emf applied across the primary

b) the number of turns in the primary

c) the number of turns in the secondary

d) the resistance of the primary and the secondary

Ans: d

24. Why does stepping voltage reduce power loss?

a) Since the resistance of the conductor decreases with increase of voltage

b) Since current decreases with increase of the voltage

c) Both of the above

d) None of the above

Ans.(b)
Hint: Power is directly proportional to the current.

 

25. The physical quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is

a) Voltage

b) current

c) Frequency

d) None of these

 

2. Electrical power transmission involves the bulk movement of electrical energy from a generating site, such as a power station or power plant, where voltage is stepped up and distributed to electrical substation and from electrical substation where voltage is stepped down and distributed to consumers or other substations. The reason electrical power is stepped up to these voltage levels is to make it more efficient by reducing the I2R losses
that take place when power is transmitted.
When voltage is stepped up, the current reduces relative to the voltage so that power remains constant, thus reducing these I2R losses.

26. Name the device which is used to transform voltage from 12kV to 400kV from power plant to substation.

a) AC generator

b) Step up Transformer

c) Moving coil Galvanometer

d) Step down transformer

Ans: B

 

27. Laminated cores are used in such devices to reduce energy loss due to:

a) Eddy currents

b) Flux leakage

c) Resistance of the windings

d) Hysteresis loss

Ans: A

 

28. A small town with a power demand of 600 kW at 220 V is situated 20 km away from power plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wire line carrying power is 0.4 Ω per km. If the power is transmitted to the substation in the town at 12 kV which the substation steps down to 220 V before supplying to the town, Estimate the line power loss during transmission in the form of heat.

a) 400 kW

b) 40 kW

c) 600 kW

d) 60 kW

Ans: B
( I = P/V = 600000/12000 = 600/12 = 50 A,

Power loss = I2 R = 50 x 50 x R = 50 x 50 x 0.4 x 40 = 40000 W = 40 kW )

 

29. High voltage transmission line is preferred as

a) Its appliances are less costly

b) Thin power cables are required

c) Idle current is very low

d) Power loss is very less

Ans: d

 

30. Which of the following assumptions are used for deriving the relation:

a) The primary resistance and current are small;

b) The same flux links both the primary and the secondary as very little flux escapes from the core

c) The secondary current is small

d) All of the above

Ans: B

 

MCQ’S IN ALTERNATING CURRENTS

 

1. A capacitor acts as an infinite resistance for

a) DC

b) AC

c) DC as well as AC

d) neither AC nor DC.

 

2. In an AC circuit current is lagging from the applied voltage then circuit can have

a) Resistance and inductor

b) Resistance and capacitor

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of the above

 

3. The peak voltage in a 220 V, AC source is

a) 220 V

b) about 160 V

c) about 310 V

d) 440 V.

 

4. An AC source is rated 220 V, 50 Hz. The average voltage is calculated in a time interval of 001 s. It

a) must be zero

b) may be zero

c) is never zero

d) is (220/2)V.

5. The magnetic field energy in an inductor charges form maximum value to minimum value in 50 ms when connected to an AC source. The frequency of the source is

a) 20 Hz

b) 50 Hz

c) 200 Hz

d) 500 Hz.

8. Transformers are used

a) in DC circuits only

b) in AC circuits only

c) in both DC and AC circuits

d) neither in DC nor in AC circuits

 

9. An alternating current having peak value 14 A is used to heat a metal wire. To produce the same heating effect, a constant current i can be used where i is

a) 14 A

b) about 20 A

c) 7 A

d) about 10 A

Q 10. A constant current of 28 A exists in a resistor. The rms current is
(a) 28 A (b) about 2 A (c) 14 A (d) undefined for a directed current.

 

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
A series LCR circuit containing a resistance of 120  has an angular resonance frequency
4105 rad/ sec . At resonance, voltage across resistance and inductance are 60 V and 40 V.

11. Value of inductance is
(A) 100H (B) 200H
(C) 100H (D) 200H

12. The value of capacitance is
(A) 32F (B) 16F
(C) 1/ 32F (D) 1/16F

 

14. The primary coil of a transformer has 100 turns and is connected to a 120 V AC source. How many
turns are in the secondary coil if there’s a 2400 V across it?
(a) 5 (b) 50 (c) 200 (d) 2000

15. A transformer with 40 turns in its primary coil is connected to a 120 V AC source. If 20 W of power
is supplied to the primary coil, how much power is developed in the secondary coil?
(a) 10 W (b) 20W (c) 80W (d) 160W

17. A 12 V battery is used to supply 2.0 mA of current to the 300 turns in the primary coil of a given
transformer. What is the current in the secondary coil if N2 = 150 turns ?
(a) zero (b) 1.0 mA (c) 2.0 mA (d) 4.0 mA

 

SOURCE STUDY QUESTIONS
An alternating voltage (in volts) varies with time t (in seconds) as V = 200 sin (100 t) to a
series combination of resistance of 10 ohm and inductor of Inductance 5 mH . Then
18. The peak value of the voltage is
(A) 200 V (B) 282.8 V
(C) 141.45 V (D) 100 V

19. The rms value of the voltage is
(A) 200 V (B) 282.8 V
(C) 141.45 V (D) 100 V

20. Inductive reactance in the circuit is
(A) 500π mΩ (B) 500 mΩ
(C) 200π mΩ (D) 500π Ω

 

Statement answers type questions:
A. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct
explanation for Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct

explanation for Assertion.
C. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D. Both Reason and Assertion are incorrect.

21. Assertion: If the frequency of alternating current in an ac circuit consisting of an
inductance coil is increased then current gets decreased
Reason: The current is inversely proportional to frequency of alternating current.

22. Assertion: An alternating current does not show any magnetic effect.
Reason: Alternating current does not vary with time.

23. Assertion: In a series LCR circuit, at resonance condition power
consumed by circuit is maximum.
Reason: At resonance condition effective resistance of circuit is
maximum.

24. Assertion: When resistance and inductor are connected in series with AC
source. Voltage lead the current in inductor.
Reason: In series R, L, C circuit when connected by A-C source voltage
can lead, or lag in phase with current depends on L and C only.

MCQ Electro Magnetic Induction Class 12 Physics Chapter 6

MCQ Electro Magnetic Induction Class 12 Physics Chapter 6

 

1. Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction is as per law of conservation of

a) energy

b) angular momentum

c) charge

d) electromotive force.

Show Answer

Ans. (a) energy

Explanation: Against to the opposing force work is done. The work done by the external agency get converted in to Electrical energy.

 

2. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a circuit changes, an emf is induced in circuit.

b) The induced emf lasts so long as the change in magnetic flux continues.

c) The direction of induced emf is given by Lenz’s law.

d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of momentum.

Show Answer

Ans. (d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of momentum.

Explanation: Conservation of Angular momentum ( I x ω = constant) has nothing to do with Lenz’s law

 

3. Which of the following does not use the application of eddy current?

a) Electric power meters

b) Induction furnace

c) LED lights

d) Magnetic brakes in trains

Show Answer

Ans.  (c) LED lights

Explanation : Eddy current cannot make an LED glow.

 

4. A metallic rod of length ‘ L’ is rotated with a angular frequency of ‘ ω ‘ , with one end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of circular metallic ring of radius ‘R’, about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring as shown in the figure. A constant and uniform magnetic field ‘B’ parallel to the axis is present everywhere. What is the emf between the centre and the metallic ring?

Electro Magnetic Induction Class12 Physics

 

a) BωR )/2

b) ( Bω2R )/2

c) ( BωR2)/2

d) ( B2ωR)/2

Show Answer

Ans. c) (BωR2)/2

Explanation: Simple derivation

 

5. In the given figure current from A to B in the straight wire is increasing. The direction of the induced current in the loop is

a) clockwise

b) anticlockwise

c) straight line

d) no induced e.m.f. produced.

Show Answer

Ans: (a) clockwise.

Explanation: According to Lenz’s law

 

6. A rod PQ of length ‘L’ is moved in uniform magnetic field ‘B’ as shown.

If the rod is moving with a velocity ‘v’ making an angle ‘θ’ with the magnetic field. What will be the emf induced in it?

a) BLvsinθ

b) BLvcosθ

c) BLv

d) BLvtanθ

Show Answer

Ans. a) BLvsinθ

Explanation: The component of velocity which contribute to the motional emf is v sinθ

 

7. When current in a coil changes from 5 A to 2 A in 0.1 s, averagevoltage of 50 V is produced. The self-inductance of the coil will be.

a) 1.67 H

b) 6 H

c) 3 H

d) 0.67 H

Show Answer

Ans. a) 1.67 H

Explanation:e = – L , By substituting the values of e, dI , dt the value of L can be calculated.

 

 

8. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid connected to a galvanometer. The magnet was heldstationary for a few seconds with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn rapidly. The maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the magnet was

a) moving towards the solenoid

b) moving into the solenoid

c) at rest inside the solenoid

d) moving out of the solenoid

Show Answer

Ans> (d) moving out of the solenoid

Explanation: As the magnet is pulled out with maximum velocity the emf generated is also proportionately more.

 

9. If number of turns in primary and secondary coils is increased to two times each, the mutual inductance.

a) becomes 4 times

b) becomes 2 times

c) becomes 8 times

d) remains unchanged

Show Answer

Ans. (a) becomes 4 times

Explanation:Mutual Inductance is μ0 n1 n2 π r2 l

 

10. A cylindrical bar magnet is rotated about its axis (Figure). A wire is connected from the axis and is made to touch the cylindrical surface through a contact. Then

a) A direct current flow in the ammeter A.

b) No current flows through the ammeter A.

c) An alternating sinusoidal current flow through the ammeter A with a time period T = 2πω

d) A time varying non-sinusoidal current flows through the ammeter.

Show Answer

Ans. (a) a direct current flow in the ammeter A.

Explanation: As there is no variation of θ the current generated is DC

 

11. The polarity of the induced emf is given by

a) Ampere’ circuital law

b) Biot- Savart Law

c) Lenz’s law

d) Fleming’s right-hand rule

Show Answer

Ans. c) Lenz’s law

Explanation: Lenz’s law gives the polarity of induced emf

 

12. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The induced e.m.f is not in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux so as to oppose the cause which produces it.

b) The relative motion between the coil and magnet produces change in magnetic flux

c) EMF is induced only if the magnet is moved towards coil.

d) EMF is induced only if the coil is mover towards magnet.

Show Answer

Ans. b) All other statements are wrong

 

13. SI unit of magnetic flux

a) weber

b) tesla x meter

c) tesla

d) Gauss

Show Answer

Ans. a) Weber

Explanation: Wb is the unit of magnetic flux

 

14. Flux is a

a) Vector quantity

b) Scalar quantity

c) Phasor

d) negative quantity

Show Answer

Ans. b) Scalar quantity

Explanation: Flux is a dot product of B and A

 

15. Which of the following statements is wrong for magnetic flux

a) Magnetic flux can be negative

b) Magnetic flux can be positive

c) Magnetic flux can be zero

d) Magnetic flux is always positive or negative.

Show Answer

Ans. d) Magnetic flux is always positive or negative.

Explanation:Flux can be zero even. It is neither positive nor negative

 

Assertion and Reason questions

Each question contains Assertion and Reason. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Select the correct choice:

(A) Assertion is True, Reason is True and Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.

(B) Assertion is True, Reason is True but Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Assertion.

(C) Assertion is True, Reason is False.

(D) Assertion isFalse, Reason is False.

 

16. Assertion: The bar magnet falling vertically along the axis of the horizontal coil will be having acceleration less than ‘g’


Reason: Clock wise current is induced in the coil

 

Show Answer

Ans. c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.

Explanation: Due to change of flux, anticlockwise current is induced in the coil. Which opposes the motion of the

magnet of the magnet and so a < g

 

17. Assertion: The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil, if the circuit is continuous.
Reason:Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current in the coil.

Show Answer

Ans. d) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong

Explanation: If there is no change in the magnetic flux linked with the coil, there is no induced current.

The current induced in a coil is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the coil

 

18. Assertion: If a coil is rotated in uniform magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the field, emf induced in coil is maximum for orientation of coil in which magnetic flux through the coil is zero.
Reason:Work done to rotate the coil will get converted into electrical energy.

Show Answer

Ans: b) Both the statements are individually true

Explanation: Reason is not relevant for Assertion

 

19. Assertion: Magnetic flux linked to closed surface is zero.
Reason:Direction of induced current due to change of magnetic flux is given by Faraday’s Law.

Show Answer

Ans. c) Assertion is True, but reason is false

Explanation: Faraday’s law doesn’t explain the direction of current

 

20. Assertion: When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between the coils is maximum.
Reason:Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils.

Show Answer

Ans. c) Assertion is True but reason is false

Explanation: Mutual induction depends on orientation of coils.

 

SECTION -A
21. Lenz’s law is consequence of the law of conservation of

a) Charge

b) Momentum

c) Mass

d) Energy

 

3. A copper ring is held horizontally and a bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet while it is passing through the ring is

a) Equal to that due to gravity

b) Less than that due to gravity

c) More than that due to gravity

d) Depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet

 

4. In a coil of area 2 10 cm and 10 turns with a magnetic field directed perpendicular to the plane and is changing at the rate of 8 10 gauss/second. The resistance of the coil is 20 ohm. The current in the coil will be

a) 5 amp

b) 0.5 amp

c) 0.05 amp

d) amp 8 5

 

5. A 10 metre wire kept in east-west falling with velocity 5 m/sec perpendicular to the field 4 2 0.3 10 Wb /m   . The induced e.m.f. across the terminal will be

a) 0.15 V

b) 1.5 mV

c) 1.5 V

d) 15.0 V

 

6. A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a direction perpendicular to its length. A constant uniform magnetic field exists in space in a direction perpendicular to the rod as well as its velocity. Select the correct statement(s) from the following

a) The entire rod is at the same electric potential

b) There is an electric field in the rod

c) The electric potential is highest at the centre of the rod and decreases towards its end

d)The electric potential is lowest at the centre of the rod and increases towards its end

 

7. A wheel with ten metallic spokes each 0.50 m long is rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane normal to the earth’s magnetic field at the place. If the magnitude of the field is 0.4 Gauss, the induced e.m.f. between the axle and the rim of the wheel is equal to

a) 1.256 10 3 V  

b) V 4 6.28 10  

c) V 4 1.256 10  

d) V 5 6.28 10  

 

8. An e.m.f. of 5 volt is produced by a self inductance, when the current changes at a steady rate from 3 A to 2 A in 1 millisecond. The value of self inductance is

a) Zero

b) 5 H

c) 5000 H

d) 5 mH

 

9. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 ampere. The energy stored in joules is

a) 1

b) 0.1

c) 0.05

d) 0.5

 

10. The number of turns in the coil of an ac generator is 5000 and the area of the coil is 2 0.25 m . The coil is rotated at the rate of 100 cycles/sec in a magnetic field of 0.2 2 W / m . The peak value of the emf generated is nearly

a) 786 kV

b) 440 kV

c) 220 kV

d) 157.1 kV

 

 

11. The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce energy losses due to

a) Eddy currents

b) Hysteresis

c) Resistance in winding

d) None of these

 

12. The inductance of a solenoid 0.5 m long of cross-sectional area 20 cm2 and with 500 turns is

a) 12.5 mH

b) 1.25 mH

c) 15.0 mH

d) 0.12 mH

 

13. The number of turns of primary and secondary coils of a transformer are 5 and 10 respectively and the mutual inductance of the transformer is 25 henry. Now the number of turns in the primary and secondary of the transformer are made 10 and 5 respectively. The mutual inductance of the transformer in henry will be

a) 6.25

b) 12.5

c) 25

d) 50

 

DIRECTIONS FOR ASSERTION & REASON QUESTIONS

These questions consist of two statements each , printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these Questions you are requested to choose any one of the following four responses.
(A) IF BOTH ASSERTION& REASON ARE TRUE &THE REASON IS A CORRECT EXPLANATION OF THE ASSERTION.
(B) IF BOTH ASSERTION& REASON ARE TRUE BUT THE REASON IS NOT A CORRECT EXPLANATION OF THE ASSERTION.
(C) IF ASSERTION IS TRUE BUT THE REASON IS FALSE.
(D) IF ASSERTION IS FALSE BUT REASON IS TRUE

 

14. Assertion: Whenever magnetic flux linked with the coil changes with respect to time,then an emf is induced in it.
Reason: According to Lenz’s law ,the direction of induced current in any coil in such a way that it always opposes the cause by which it is produced.

 

15. Assertion: A small magnet takes longer time in falling in a hollow metallic tube with out touching the wall.
Reason: There is opposition of motion due to production of eddy currents in a metallic tube.

16. Assertion: On moving a straight wire of copper in a uniform magnetic field cutting the lines of force, an emf is induced between the ends of the wire.
Reason : The Lorentz force acts on the free electrons of copper wire when moved in magnetic field .

17. Assertion: The phenomenon of self induction is helpful in working of a choke coil .
Reason : A choke coil is used for reducing energy loss in the circuit .

18. Assertion: When two coils are wound on each other ,the mutual induction between the coils is maximum .
Reason :Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils .

 

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

19. Lenz’s law states that ,The induced electromotive force with different polarities induces a current whose magnetic field opposes the change in magnetic flux through the loop in order to ensure that original flux is maintained through the loop when current flows in it. To better understand Lenz‟s law, let us consider two cases:

Case 1: When a magnet is moving towards the coil.
When the north pole of the magnet is approaching towards the coil, the magnetic flux linking to the coil increases. According to Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic induction, when there is a change in flux, an EMF, and hence current is induced in the coil and this current will create its own magnetic field.

Now according to Lenz‟s law, this magnetic field created will oppose its own or we can say opposes the increase in flux through the coil and this is possible only if approaching coil side attains north polarity, as we know similar poles repel each other. Once we know the magnetic polarity of the coil side, we can easily determine the direction of the induced current by applying right hand rule. In this case, the current flows in the anticlockwise direction.

 

Case 2: When a magnet is moving away from the coil

When the north pole of the magnet is moving away from the coil, the magnetic flux linking to the coil decreases. According to Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic induction, an EMF and hence current is induced in the coil and this current will create its own magnetic field.
Now according to Lenz‟s law, this magnetic field created will oppose its own or we can say opposes the decrease in flux through the coil and this is possible only if approaching coil side attains south polarity, as we know dissimilar poles attract each other. Once we know the magnetic polarity of the coil side, we can easily determine the direction of the induced current by applying right hand rule. In this case, the current flows in a clockwise direction.
Note that for finding the directions of magnetic field or current, use the right-hand thumb rule i.e if the fingers of the right hand are placed around the wire so that the thumb points in the direction of current flow, then the curling of fingers will show the direction of the magnetic field produced by the wire.

1. What is the direction of the induced magnetic field?

a) Left

b) right

c) up

d) down

Show Answer

Ans. (a) left

2. What is the direction of the induced magnetic field?

a) left

b) right

c) up

d) down

Show Answer

Ans. (d) down

 

3. In what direction is the magnet moving?

a) left

b) right

c) up

d) down

Show Answer

Ans. (b) right

 

4. In what direction is the magnet moving?

a) left

b) right

c) up

d) down

Show Answer

Ans. (a) left

 

5. Which of the following is NOT an application of Lenz’s Law

a)Transformer

b) AC Generator

c) DC Motor

d) A coil transversed by AC current

Show Answer

Ans.(c) DC Motor

 

20. According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, there will be an EMF induced in the second winding. If the circuit of this secondary winding is closed, then a current will flow through it. This is the basic working principle of a transformer.
Let us use electrical symbols to help visualize this. The winding which receives electrical power from the source is known as the “primary winding”. In the diagram below this is the “First Coil”. The winding which gives the desired output voltage due to mutual induction is commonly known as the “secondary winding”. This is the “Second Coil” in the diagram above.

A transformer that increases voltage between the primary to secondary windings is defined as a step-up transformer. Conversely, a transformer that decreases voltage between the primary to secondary windings is defined as a step-down transformer.
Whether the transformer increases or decreases the voltage level depends on the relative number of turns between the primary and secondary side of the transformer.
If there are more turns on the primary coil than the secondary coil than the voltage will decrease (step down).
If there are less turns on the primary coil than the secondary coil than the voltage will increase (step up).
While the diagram of the transformer above is theoretically possible in an ideal transformer – it is not very practical. This is because in the open air only a very tiny portion of the flux produced from the first coil will link with the second coil. So the current that flows through the closed circuit connected to the secondary winding will be extremely small (and difficult to measure).
The rate of change of flux linkage depends upon the amount of linked flux with the second winding. So ideally almost all of the flux of primary winding should link to the secondary winding. This is effectively and efficiently done by using a core type transformer. This provides a low reluctance path common to both of the windings.

1. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed?

a)Current transformer

b)Voltage transformer

c)Power transformer

d)Step down transformer

Show Answer

Ans. (a) Current Transformer

 

2. If the supply frequency of a transformer increases, the secondary output voltage of the transformer

a) Increase

b)Decrease

c)Remain the same

d)Any of the above

Show Answer

Ans.(c) Remain the same

 

3. The open-circuit test in a transformer is used to measure

a)Copper loss

b)Winding loss

c)Total loss

d)Core loss

Show Answer

Ans.(d) Core loss

 

4. Lamination of the transformer core is made of

a)Cast Iron

b)Silicon Steel

c)Aluminum

d)Cast Steel

Show Answer

Ans.(b) Silicon Steel

 

5. A transformer transform

a)Current

b)Voltage & current

c)Frequency

d)Voltage

Show Answer

Ans.(b) Voltage & current

 

21. Definition: Mutual Inductance between the two coils is defined as the property of the coil due to which it opposes the change of current in the other coil, or you can say in the neighbouring coil. When the current in the neighbouring coil changes, the flux sets up in the coil and because of this, changing flux emf is induced in the coil called Mutually Induced emf and the phenomenon is known as Mutual Inductance.
The value of Mutual Inductance (M) depends upon the following factors
1. Number of turns in the secondary or neighboring coil
2. Cross-sectional area
3. Closeness of the two coils

Mutual Coupling In the Magnetic Circuit
When on a magnetic core, two or more than two coils are wound, the coils are said to be mutually coupled. The current, when passed in any of the coils wound around the magnetic core, produces flux which links all the coils together and also the one in which current is passed.
Hence, there will be both self-induced emf and mutual induced emf in each of the coils.
The best example of the mutual inductance is the transformer, which works on the principle of Faraday‟s Law of Electromagnetic Induction.
Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic induction states that “ the magnitude of voltage is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.” which is explained in the topic Faraday‟s Law of Electromagnetic Induction.

1. The phenomenon due to which there is an induced current in one coil due to current in a neighbouring coil is?

a) Electromagnetism

b) Susceptance

c) Mutual inductance

d) Steady current

Show Answer

Ans. (c) Mutual Inductance

 

2. Mutual inductance between two magnetically coupled coils depends on

a) Permeability of the core material

b) Number of turns of the coils

c) Cross sectional area of their common core

d) All of the above

Show Answer

Ans. d)

 

3. Which of the following is unit of inductance?

a) Ohm

b) Henry

c) Ampere turns

d) Webers/meter

Show Answer

Ans. (B) Henry

 

4. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current?

a) Capacitance

b) Inductance

c) Resistance

d) All of the above

Show Answer

Ans.(B) Inductance

 

5. If in an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so as to make the air cored coil, the inductance of the coil will be

a) More

b) Less

c) The same

d) None of these

Show Answer

Ans.(B) Less

MCQ Magnetism and Matter Class 12 Physics Chapter 5

MCQ Magnetism and Matter Class 12 Physics Chapter 5

 

1. What is the dimensional formula of magnetic pole strength

a)[M0L-1T0A1]

b) [M0L1T0A1]

c)[M2L1T0A2]

d) [M0L2T0A1]

 

2. A wire of length 2m is bent to form a circular coil of single turn. What is its magnetic moment in Am2 if the current in the coil is 1A

a) 2

b) 1

c) 3

d) 1/2

3. A circular coil of wire n turns has a radius r and carries a current I . Its magnetic dipole moment is M .
Now the coil is unwound and again rewound into a circular coil of half the initial radius
and the same current is passed through it, then the dipole moment of this new coil is

a)M/2

b)M/4

c)M

d)2M

4. A uniform copper wire of length L is bent into a circular coil of two turns and a current i is passed through it. The coil now behaves like a magnetic dipole of moment

a) iL2/16 π

b) iL2/8 π

c) iL2/4 π

d) iL2/2 π

5. The primary origin of magnetism lies in

a) atomic current and intrinsic spin of electrons.

b) polar and non polar nature of molecules.

c) pauli exclusion principle.

d) electronegatic nature of materials.

6. The expression for magnetic moment of revolving electron is

a) evr/2

b)(eh/4πm)n

c)(e/2m)L

d) all the above

7. The orbital speed of electron orbiting around a nucleus in a circular orbit of radius 50pm is 2.2x106m/s.Then the magnetic moment of electron is

a) 8.8×10-24Am2

b) 1.6×10-19Am2

c)8.8×10-30Am2

d)None of these

8. A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5×10−4m2 carries a current of 3.0A. What is its associated magnetic moment?

a)0.5Am2

b) 0.6Am

c) 0.5Am

d) 0.6Am2

9. Magnetic moment for solenoid and corresponding bar magnet is

a) equal for both

b) more for solenoid

c) more for bar magnet

d) none of these

10. The earth behaves as a magnet with magnetic field pointing approximately from the geographic

a) North to South

b) South to North

c) East to West

d) West to East

 

11. Lines of force, due to earth’s horizontal magnetic field, are

a) elliptical

b) curved lines

c) concentric circles

d) parallel and straight

12. The earth’s magnetic field at the equator is approximately 0.4 G. What is the estimated value of the earth’s dipole moment is (The radius of the earth is R=6.4 x1024 m)

a) 1.05 x1023 Am

b) 1.05 x1023 Am2

c) 2.05 x1023 Am2

d) 3.05 x1023 Am2

13. If the angles of dip at two places are 300 and 450 respectively, then the ratio of horizontal components of earth’s magnetic field at the two places will be:
a)

b)

c)

d) 1 : 2

15. Which of the following statement is not correct about the magnetic field?

a) Magnetic field lines form a continuous closed curve.

b) Magnetic field line do not interest each other.

c) Direction of tangent at any point on the magnetic field line slot gacor online curve gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.

d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines go from South to North pole of the magnet.

16.The magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet:

a) do not exist

b) depends on area of cross-section of bar magnet

c) are from N-pole to S-pole of the magnet

d) are from S-pole to N-pole of the magnet.

17. The Direction of net magnetic field at any point in the magnetic field is————————–

a) Always South to North at all points of the field

b) Always North to South at all points of the field

c) Tangential to the field line at that point

d) Normal to the field line at that point

18. What is the strength of magnetic field known as ________

a) Magnetic flux

b) Density
c) Intensity of magnetisation

d) Magnetic flux density

19.The net magnetic flux through any closed surface, kept in a magnetic field is

a) zero

b) μ0/4π

c) 4π/μ0

d) 4μ0/π

20.At a place the angle of dip is 30°. If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is HE, then the total field intensity will be given by

a) HE /2

b) 2 HE /√3

c) HE / √2

d) HE /√3

21.The Earth always have both horizontal and vertical components everywhere.

a)True

b)False

22.When is the angle of dip at a place equal to 45o?

a) When the vertical and horizontal components of earth’s magnetic field are equal

b) When the vertical component is twice the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field

c) When the vertical component is half the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field

d) When either the vertical component or the horizontal components of earth’s magnetic field is equal to zero

 

23.The magnetic field of Earth can be modelled by that of a point dipole placed at the centre of the Earth. The dipole axis makes an angle of 11.3° with the axis of Earth. At Mumbai, ‘declination is nearly zero. Then,

a) the declination varies between 11.3° W to 11.3° E.

b) the least declination is 0°

c) the plane defined by dipole axis and Earth axis passes through Greenwich.

d) declination averaged over Earth must be always negative.

 

24.Which of the following is responsible for the earth’s magnetic field?

а) Convective currents in earth’s core

b) Diversive current in earth’s core.

c) Rotational motion of earth.

d) Translational motion of earth.

 

25 How many quantities are required to specify the magnetic field of the earth?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

 

26. Which of the following is the definition for magnetic meridian of Earth?

a) Vertical plane passing through the axis of a freely suspended or pivoted magnet

b) Horizontal plane passing through the axis of a freely suspended or pivoted magnet

c) Vertical plane passing through slot online the geographical North Pole and South Pole at a given place

d) Horizontal plane passing through the geographical North Pole and South Pole at a given place

 

27. Which among the following is denoted by δ?

a) Horizontal component

b) Magnetic meridian

c) Magnetic declination

d) Magnetic inclination

 

28. A long magnet is cut into two parts such that the ratio of their lengths is 2:1. What is the ratio pole strength of both the section?

a) 1:2

b) 2:1

c) 4:1

d) Equal

 

29.Which of the following statements is true about magnetic field intensity?

a) Magnetic field intensity is the number of lines of force crossing per unit volume.

b) Magnetic field intensity is the number of lines of force crossing per unit area.

c) Magnetic field intensity is the magnetic induction force acting on a unit magnetic pole.

d) Magnetic field intensity is the magnetic moment per unit volume.

 

30. What happens to the magnetic moment if a hole is made at the centre of a bar magnet?

a) Decreases

b) Increases

c) Does Not change

d) None of the above

 

Assertion and Reasoning type of questions

 

Directions for assertion & reason questions

These questions consist of two statements each , printed as assertion and reason. while answering these questions you have to choose any one of the following four responses.
(A) if both assertion& reason are true &the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) if both assertion& reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) if assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) if assertion is false but reason is true

31 . Assertion : When radius of a circular loop carrying current is doubled, its magnetic moment becomes four times.
Reason : Magnetic moment daftar slot online depends on area of the loop.

 

32. Assertion :The magnetic moment (μ) of an electron revolving around the nucleus decreases with increasing principle quantum number (n).
Reason :Magnetic moment of the revolving electron μ n

 

33. Assertion : The magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is independent of its length and cross-sectional area.
Reason : The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform.

 

34. Assertion :The ends of a magnet suspended freely point out always along north south direction.
Reason : Earth behaves as a huge magnet.

 

35. Assertion :The angle of dip is maximum at the poles of the earth.
Reason :The magnetic field lines are parallel to the surface of the earth at the poles.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

KEY FOR THE QUESTIONS
1. b 2.c 3.a 4.b 5.a
6.d 7.a 8.d 9.a 10.d
11.b 12.d 13.b 14.a 15.d

16.d 17. c 18.d 19.a 20.b
21.b 22.a 23.a 24.a 25.c
26.a 27.d 28.d 29.c 30.c
31.b 32.d 33.b 34.a 35.c
Hints:
2. Length of the wire =2m, when bent becomes circumference (c) of the loop, whose radius is given by
:
r=c/2 π=(2/2 π)=(1/ π)
Thus, area of loop :-
A=πr2=π(1/π)2=1/π m2
So, the magnetic moment of the loop in,
M=IA=(1/π)Am2.
3.
40
4.
7.
41
8.
Given: n=800,
A=2.5×10−4m2,
I=3.0A
A magnetic field develops along the axis of the solenoid. Therefore current-carrying solenoid acts like a
bar magnet.
m=nIA=800×3×2.5×10−4
=0.6Am2 along the axis of the solenoid.
13.Bequatorial=μ0/4π×M/d3⇒
Here μ0 is the permeability of free space, M is the dipole moment of the magnet, d is the
distance of the point from the equator of the magnet, and
Bequatorials the magnetic field of the magnetic field at the equator of the magnet.
for any point on the equator d=R=6400Km=6400×103m
Also, the value of the magnetic field is given as
⇒B=0.4G=0.4×10-4,T
On calculation
Earth’s dipole moment at the equator will be 1.05×1023Am

MCQ Magnetic Effect of Electric Current Class 12 Physics Chapter 4

MCQ Magnetic Effect of Electric Current Class 12 Physics Chapter 4

 

1. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) A charged particle can be accelerated by a magnetic field.

b) A charged particle cannot be accelerated by a magnetic field.

c) The speed of a charged particle can be increased by a uniform magnetic field.

d) The speed of a charged particle can be increased by a nonuniform magnetic field.

 

2. A proton moves horizontally towards a vertical conductor carrying a current upwards. It will be deflected

a) to the left

b) to the right

c) upwards

d)downwards

 

3. A proton and an Alpha-particle with the same kinetic energy are moving in circular trajectories in a constant magnetic field. If rp and ra denote respectively the radii of the trajectories of these particles,

a) rp > ra

b) rp = ra

c) rp < ra

d) rp = ra

4.A circular loop of area 1cm2, carrying a current of 10A is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1T perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The force on the loop due to magnetic field is

a) Zero

b)10-4N

c) 10-2N

d) 1 N

 

5. Two long conductors separated by a distance d carry currents I1 and I2 in the same direction. They exert a force F on each other. Now the current in one of them is increased to two times and its direction is reversed. The distance is also increased to 3d. The new value of the force between them is

a) -2F

b)F/3

c)-2F/3

d)- F/3

6. A circular coil of one turn with radius R carrying a current I has a dipole moment M. Now the coil is opened and rewound to have two turns without altering the current. The new dipole moment of the coil is

a) M/2

b) 2M

c) M

d) 4M

 

7. In order to float a wire carrying current I with linear mass situs slot gacor density μ in the air , the direction and magnitude of magnetic field to be is (Current is passing left to right)

a) μg/I into the plane

b) μg/I vertically upward

c) μg/IL into the plane

d) μg/I L vertically upward

 

8.A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 100Ω and the meter shows full scale deflection for a current of 1mA. The shunt resistance required to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0 to 5A is about

a) 0.01 Ω

b) 0.1Ω

c) 0.02 Ω

d) 0.2 Ω

9.An infinitely long wire carries a current I from left to right direction. A circular coil of radius R is in contact with the wire and carries the same current in clockwise direction. What is the magnitude and direction of net magnetic field intensity at the centre of the coil?

a) ( 1-) out of the plane of the page

b) ( 1-) in to the plane of the page

c) ( 1+) out of the plane of the page

d) ( 1+) out of the plane of the page

 

10. If we increase the number of turns of the coil of the moving coil galvanometer what happens
to the sensitivity?

a)Current sensitivity remains constant but voltage sensitivity changes

b)Current sensitivity increases but voltage sensitivity remains same

c)Both of them increase

d) No change in them

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS:
Answer: (A) : Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: (B) : Both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: (C) : Reason is wrong.
Answer: (D) : Both are wrong.

11. Assertion: If a charged particle is moving in a perpendicular uniform magnetic field then its K E does not change

Reason: Velocity of the charged situs judi slot online terbaik dan terpercaya particle is not changing in the magnetic field

12. Assertion: A linear solenoid carrying a current is an equivalent bar magnet
Reason: The field lines of a solenoid resemble that of a bar magnet

13. Assertion: Magnetic field of an atom is due to both, the orbital motion and spin motion of electrons
Reason: A moving charged particle produces magnetic field

14. Assertion: Two electrons projected in to a uniform magnetic field at right angles with two different velocities complete their circular paths in the same time
Reason: Time period of revolution does not depend on velocity of the charged particle

15. Assertion: The magnetic field along the axis of a thick current carrying conductor is zero
Reason: Electric current flows only on the surface of a conductor

 

MCQ Current Electricity Class 12 Physics Chapter 3

MCQ Current Electricity Class 12 Physics Chapter 3

 

1. Path followed by free electrons in conductor, when it is placed in an external electric field is:

a) Straight line

b) Circular

c) Curved path

d) Elliptical

Ans. Option C Curved path

 

2. Average thermal speed of electrons in a conductor is:

a) 3 x 108 m/s

b) 10-4 m/s

c) 0 m/s

d) 10-6 m/s
Ans. Option C : 0 m/s as the electrons have random motion in the absence of electric field inside the conductor. Their thermal velocity averaged to be zero.

 

3. A cell of emf 8V with small finite internal resistance is charged with the help of an external battery. Terminal Potential drop across the cell while charging would be:

a) Greater than 8 V

b) Less than 8 V

c) Zero

d) Equal to 8 V

Ans: Option a : Greater than 8V while charging terminal drop of a cell is V = E + Ir as r being non zero V will always be more than E(i.e. 8V).

 

4. When three cells each of emf 3V and internal resistance 1 ohm is connected in series across a resistor. Then, a graph of terminal drop of the combination vs current drawn from it is found to be a straight line. Then Its Y-intercept and slope represents:

a) 9 V and effective internal resistance

b) 3 V and negative of effective internal resistance

c) 3 V and effective internal resistance

d) 9 V and negative of effective internal resistance

Ans: Option d: graph of terminal drop vs current is a straight line with negative slope, so Y, intercept represents effective emf of the combination (in series Eeff = E1+ E2+ E3 = 9V) and negative slope gives us effective internal resistance.

 

5. Name the material that offers less resistance with increase in temperature

a) Au

b) Ag

c) Si

d) Hg at 40C

Ans: Option c: remaining all are metals whose resistivity increase with increase in temperature. Whereas Si is a semiconductor, whose resistivity decreases with increase in temperature.

 

6. When a resistor x is kept in the left gap and y in the right gap of a meter bridge, balancing length is found to be l cm. what resistance is to be placed in the left gap to have the same balancing length l cm on placing x in the right gap?

a) X2/y

b) X2y

c) Y2x

d) Y2/x

Ans: Option A: in the first case x/y = l/(100-l) Second case z/x = l/(100-l), on comparing both z = x2/y

 

7. The best instrument for accurate measurement of EMF of a cell is-

a) Potentiometer

b) metre bridge

c) Voltmeter

d) ammeter and voltmeter
Ans: Option a: Potentio meter, as it draws no current from the cell

 

8. Name the physical quantity that is conserved in Kirchhoff’s loop rule:

a) Charge

b) mass

c) Energy

d) Momentum

Ans: Option C. Energy is conserved in Kirchhoff’s loop rule. Where as charge is conserved in Kirchhoff’s junction rule

 

9. How does the balancing length of a potentiometer change on increasing the resistance offered by the rheostat that is connected in series with the primary cell.

a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) Remains same

d) Turns zero

Ans: Option b: on increasing the resistance offered by primary resistance, total current in the primary decreases which will decrease the potential drop across the potentiometer wire. So to balance the given potential balancing length will increase.

 

10. a cell of emf 5V and internal resistance 1 ohm is connected across a heating element
of resistance 9 ohm, find the amount of heat lost in one sec is:

a) 2.25 Watt

b) 2.25 Joule

c) 2.5 Watt

d) 2.5 Joule

Ans: Option b: H = i2Rt here t= 1 sec, R=9 ohm and I = E/(R+r) = 5/(9+1)=0.5 A H= 0.25 x 9 x 1 = 2.25 joule

 

Q.No. 11 to 16 are assertion and reason questions, which consists of two statements, typed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and the Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
d) If both Assertion and the Reason are false.

11. Assertion: A domestic electric appliance working on a three pin, will continue working if the thick pin is removed.
Reason: The thick pin is used only as a safety device.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and the Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
d) If both Assertion and the Reason are false.

 

Ans. Option A

12. Assertion: Conductivity of a metal is much higher than that of an electrolyte at room temperature.
Reason: Free electron density in metals is much lesser than the density of ions in
electrolytes and also free electrons have smaller mobility than ions.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and the Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
d) If both Assertion and the Reason are false.

 

Ans. Option C

13. Assertion: When Wheatstone bridge is balanced, the current through the cell depends on the resistance of the galvanometer.
Reason: In balanced condition, current through the galvanometer is very high.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and the Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
d) If both Assertion and the Reason are false.

 

Ans. Option D

14. Assertion: Potentiometer is an ideal instrument to measure the potential difference.
Reason: Potential gradient along the potentiometer wire can be made very small.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and the Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
d) If both Assertion and the Reason are false.

 

Ans. Option B

15. Assertion: The value of temperature of coefficient of resistance is positive for metals.
Reason: The value of temperature or coefficient of resistance is negative for insulators.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and the Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
d) If both Assertion and the Reason are false.

 

Ans. Option B

16. Assertion: When identical cells are connected in parallel to an external load, the effective emf increases.
Reason: All the cells will be sending unequal currents to the external load in the same direction.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and the Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
d) If both Assertion and the Reason are false.

 

Ans. Option D

 

Question 17-20 are case study based and source based questions, in which relevant data will be given in the form of a diagram or paragraph or the principle behind the topic. Based on which 4 MCQs will be asked.

 

17. Potentiometer: A potentiometer is an instrument that measures the terminal potential difference with high accuracy without drawing any current from the unknown source. It is based on the principle that if constant current is passed through a wire of uniform cross-section, then potential difference across any segment of the wire is proportional to its length. Sensitivity of potentiometer inversely depends on its potential gradient. In the below circuit length of AB is 1.00m emf of Ep is 5.0V, resistance offered by AB is 0.08 ohm per cm and Voltmeter reads 2 V with a balancing length of 50 cm.

i) What is the resistance offered by the rheostat in ohm in the above condition is:

a) 1

b) 2

c) 0.5

d) 0.25

Ans: Option b. As 50 cm is balancing 2.0V entire wire AB can balance 4.0 V as emf of primary is 5.0V, drop across Rheostat be 1.0V.
Resistance offered by AB is 8ohm so for a drop of 4.0V current through it will be 0.5A.
Now for a current of 0.5A and drop of 1.0V rheostat has to offer 2 ohm of resistance.

ii) On slightly increasing the emf of the primary cell how would the balancing length change?

a) Increases

b) decreases

c) remains same

d) turns zero
Ans. Option b. On increasing primary emf, potential gradient will increase which will decrease the balancing length.

iii) If voltmeter is replaced with series combination of two cells of emf E1 and E2 (E1>E2), balancing length is found to be 80cm, when the same cells are connected in opposite new balancing length is found to be 40 cm. the ratio of emf of the two cells(E1/E2) is:

a) 1:2

b) 2:1

c) 1:3

d) 3:1
Ans: Option d. E1+E2 = k 80, E1-E2=k40, on adding both E1=k60, and E2=k20 => E1/E2 = 3:1

iv) Sensitivity of a potentiometer can be increased by :

a) Decreasing potential gradient along the wire

b) Increasing potential gradient along the wire

c) Decreasing current through the wire

d) Increasing current through the wire
Ans: Option a

18. Electric energy: Whenever an electric current is passed through a conductor, it becomes hot after
some time. The phenomenon of the production of heat in a resistor by the flow of an electric current through it is called heating effect of current or Joule heating. Thus, the electrical energy supplied by the source of emf is converted into heat. In a purely resistive circuit, the energy expended by the source entirely appears as heat. But if the circuit has an active element like a motor, then a part of the energy supplied by the source goes to do useful work and the rest appears as heat.

i) Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Heat produced in a conductor depends only on its resistance

b) Heat produced in a conductor depends only on current passing through it

c) With increase in time heat produced in a conductor decreases.

d) All of the above
Ans: Option d, Aloof the given statements are false

ii) If the coil of a heater is cut to one third, what would happen to heat produced?

a) Tripled

b) Becomes one third

c) Remains same

d) Becomes nine times
Ans: Option A. as length becomes one third resistance will also become one third. Heat produced is H = (v2/R)t, as R’ = R/3 => H’ = 3H

 

iii) 60W and 100W are joined in series and connected to the mains. Which bulbs will glow brighter?

a) 60W

b) 100W

c) both bulbs glow brighter

d) none will glow

Ans: Option A, H is directly proportional to R where R is inversely proportional to P. So more the power rating less the heat produced in series.

 

iv) Distance transmission of electrical energy is to be done at

a) High voltages to increase the power dissipated

b) High voltages to decrease the power dissipated

c) Low voltages to decrease the power dissipated

d) Low voltages to increase the power dissipated

Ans: Option b, power dissipated in transmission line is Pc = P2R/V2, here P is the power to be delivered, which remains constant, Pc α 1/V2, more the voltage less the power dissipated.

 

19. Kirchhoff’s laws(Wheatstone bridge):

These are two basic rules that will help us to solve the circuits that can not be resolved as simple series or parallel combinations. These laws deal with currents and voltage drops in a circuit.

i) What is the effective resistance between A and B in the above circuit

a) 4 ohm

b) 2 ohm

c) 1 ohm

d) 2.4 ohm

Ans: Option a. above circuit is a balanced wheatstone bridge so the effective resistance turns out to be 4 ohm

ii) What is the total current in the circuit

a) 0 A

b) 2 A

c) 1 A

d) 0.5 A

Ans: Option b, as total resistance is 4 ohm and total voltage applied is 8 V from ohm’s law total current will be 2 A

iii) Current through 8 ohm resistor is:

a) 0 A

b) 2 A

c) 1 A

d) 0.5 A

Ans: Option A, as bridge is balanced no current will flow through 8 Ohm resistor

iv) What will be the drop across 3 Ohm resistor

a) 1 V

b) 2V

c) 3 V

d) 0V

Ans: Option C, as current through circuit is 2 A, from symmetry it’ll get divided equally about upper and lower branch i.e. 1 A each. As 1 A current in passing through 3 Ohm resistor, drop across it will be 3V

20. Current in a conductor :

Metal’s have a large number of free electrons, nearly 1028 per cubic metre. In the absence of an electric field, the average terminal speed of the electrons in random motion at room temperature is of the order of 105m/s. When a potential difference V is applied across the two ends of a given conductor, the free electrons in the conductor
experience a force and are accelerated towards the positive end of the conductor. On heir way, they suffer frequent collisions with the ions/atoms of the conductor and lose their gained kinetic energy. After each collision, the free electrons are again accelerated due to electric field, towards the positive end of the conductor and lose
their gained kinetic energy in the next collision with the ions/atoms of the conductor. The average speed of the free electrons with which they drift towards the positive end of the conductor under the effect of applied electric fields is called drift speed it can also be expressed in terms of current as vd=i/neA.

i) Magnitude of drift velocity per unit electric field is;

a) Current density

b) current

c) resistivity

d) mobility
Ans: Option d, mobility

 

ii) The drift speed of the electrons depends on:

a) Dimensions of the conductor

b) Number density of free electrons in the conductor

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b
Ans: Option C, vd = I/neA

 

iii) We are able to obtain fairly large currents in a conductor because

a) The electron drift speed is usually very large

b) The number density of free electrons is very high and this can compensate for the low values of the electron drift speed and the very small magnitude of the electron charge

c) The number density of free electrons as well as the electron drift speeds are very large and these compensate for very small magnitude of the electron charge

d) The very small magnitude of the electron charge has to be divided by the still smaller product of the number density and drift speed to get the electric current.
Ans: Option b.

iv) The number density of free electrons in copper conductor is 8.5 x 1028m-3, how long does an electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3.0m long to its other end? The area of cross-section of the wire is 2.0 x 10-6 m2 and it is carrying a current of 3.0A.

a) 8.1 x 104 s

b) 2.7 x 104s

c) 9 x 103 s

d) 3 x 103 s

Ans: Option b, I = neAvd and vd=length/t => t=neA(length)/I

 

21. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of same material, connected in parallel. If the lengths and radii of the wires are in the ratio of 3:2 and 2:3, then the ratio of the current passing through the wire will be

a) 2:3

b) 3:2

c) 8:27

d) 27:8

Ans: optin 3, 8:27 as I inversely depends on R in parallel and R proportional to L/r2

 

22. From the graph between current I and voltage V shown below, identify the portion corresponding to negative resistance.

a) AB

b) BC

c) CD

d) DE

Ans: Option C, CD this is the region where current is falling with raise in voltage

 

23. Two wires of same material have length L and 2L and cross-sectional areas 4A and A respectively. The ratio their specific resistance would be:

a) 1 : 2

b) 8 : 1

c) 1 : 8

d) 1 : 1
Ans: Option d. as both materials being same, specific resistance remains same

 

24. Two cells of emf’s approximately 5V and 10V are to be accurately compared using a potentiometer of length 400m.

a) The battery that run the potentiometer should have voltage of 8 V

b) The battery of potentiometer can have a voltage of 15V and R adjusted so that the potential drop across the wire slightly exceeds 10V

c) The first portion of 50cm of wire itself should have a potential drop of 10V

d) Potentiometer is usually used for comparing resistance and not voltages.
Ans: Option B: driving battery emf should always more than the emf of secondary cells

25. A 220V-100W bulb is connected to a source of 180V. the power consumed by it will be nearly :

a) 32 w

b) 67 W

c) 100 W

d) 75 W
Ans: Option b: 67

Term 1 Sample Paper Chemistry for Class 12 2021-22

Term 1 Sample Paper Chemistry for Class 12 2021-22

Sample Question Paper 2021-22
Term 1
Subject: Chemistry (043)
Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 35
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

SECTION A

This section consists of 25multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

1.Which of the following statements is true:

a)Melting point of Phosphorous is less than that of Nitrogen

b)N2 is highly reactive while P4 is inert

c)Nitrogen shows higher tendency of catenation than P

d)N-N is weaker than P-P

 

2. Which of the following is a non-stoichiometric defect?

a)Frenkel defect

b)Schottky defect

c)metal deficiency defect

d)interstitial defect

 

3. Identify the law which is stated as:
“For any solution, the partial vapour pressure of each volatile component in the solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction.”

a)Henry’s law

b) Raoult’s law

c)Dalton’s law

d)Gay-Lussac’s Law

 

4. Pink colour of LiCl crystals is due to:

a) Schottky defect

b)Frenkel defect

c) Metal excess defect

d) Metal deficiency defect

 

5. Which of the following isomer has the highest melting point:

a) 1,2-dicholorbenzene

b) 1,3 -dichlorobenzene

c) 1,4-dicholorbenzene

d) all isomers have same melting points

 

6. Which one of the following reactions is not explained by the open chain Structure of glucose:

a) Formation of pentaacetate of glucose with acetic anhydride.

b) formation of addition product with 2,4 DNP reagent

c) Silver mirror formation with Tollen’s reagent

d) existence of alpha and beta forms of glucose.

 

7. Williamson’s synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is an:

a) SN 1 reaction

b) Elimination reaction

c) SN 2 reaction

d) Nucleophilic addition reaction

 

8. Chlorine water loses its yellow colour on standing because:

a) HCl gas is produced, due to the action of sunlight.

b) a mixture of HOCl and HCl is produced in the presence of light

c) HOCl and hydrogen gas is produced

d) a mixture of HCl and ClO3 is produced, due to the action of sunlight

 

9. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with concentrated H2SO4, the initiation step is:

a) protonation of alcohol molecule

b) formation of carbocation

c) elimination of water

d) formation of an ester

 

10. Amorphous solids are:

a) isotropic

b)anisotropic

c) isotopic

d) isomeric

 

11. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare salicylaldehyde?

a) Kolbe’s reaction

b) Etard reaction

c) Reimer- Tiemann reaction

d) Stephen’s reduction

 

12. Which of the following is an example of a solid solution?

a)sea water

b)sugar solution

c)smoke

d)22 carat gold

 

13. The boiling points of alcohols are higher than those of hydrocarbons of comparable masses due to:

a) Hydrogen bonding

b) Ion – dipole interaction

c) Dipole- dipole interaction

d) Van der Waal’s forces.

 

14. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point:

a)H2O

b)H2S

c)H2Se

d)H2Te

 

15. Which of the following statement is correct:

a)Fibrous proteins are generally soluble in water

b)Albumin is an example of fibrous proteins

c)In fibrous proteins, the structure is stabilised by hydrogen bonds and disulphide bonds

d)pH does not affect the primary structure of protein.

 

16. Major product obtained on reaction of 3-Phenyl propene with HBr in presence of organic peroxide

a)3- Phenyl 1- bromopropane

b) 1 –Phenyl -3- bromopropane

c) 1-Phenyl -2-bromopropane

d) 3-Phenyl -2- bromopropane

 

17. Which of the following is a correct statement for C2H5Br?

a) It reacts with metallic Na to give ethane.

b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous solution of AgNO2

c) It gives C2H5OH on boiling with alcoholic potash.

d) It forms diethylthioether on heating with alcoholic KSH.

 

18.Covalency of nitrogen is restricted to:

a)2

b)3

c)4

d)5

 

19.Solubility of gases in liquids decreases with rise in temperature because dissolution is an:

a)endothermic and reversible process

b)exothermic and reversible process

c)endothermic and irreversible process

d) exothermic and irreversible process

 

20.All elements of Group 15 show allotropy except:

a)Nitrogen

b)Arsenic

c)Antimony

d)Bismuth

 

21.Which of the following is a polysaccharide?

a)glucose

b)maltose

c)glycogen

d)lactose

 

22. Substance having the lowest boiling point:

a)Hydrogen

b)Oxygen

c)Nitrogen

d) Helium

 

23.Lower molecular mass alcohols are:

a)miscible in limited amount of water

b) miscible in excess of water

c) miscible in water in all proportions

d) immiscible in water

 

24.Maximum oxidation state exhibited by Chlorine is:

a) +1

b) +3

c)+5

d)+7

 

25.In which of the following cases blood cells will shrink:

a)when placed in water containing more than 0.9% (mass/ volume) NaCl solution.

b)when placed in water containing less than 0.9% (mass /volume) NaCl solution.

c)when placed in water containing 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl solution.

d)when placed in distilled water.

 

SECTION B

This section consists of 24multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

26. How much ethyl alcohol must be added to 1 litre of water so that the solution will freeze at– 14°C ? (Kf for water = 1.86°C/mol)

a) 7.5 mol

b)8.5 mol

c)9.5 mol

d)10.5 mol

 

27. Which reagents are required for one step conversion of chlorobenzene to toluene?

a) CH3Cl / AlCl3

b) CH3Cl, Na, Dry ether

c)CH3Cl/Fe dark

d) NaNO2/ HCl /0-50C

 

28. On partial hydrolysis, XeF6 gives:

a) XeO3 +4HF

b) XeO2F + HF

c) XeOF4+ H2

d) XeO2F2 + 4HF

 

29. Which one of the following statement is correct about sucrose :

a) It can reduce tollen’s reagent however cannot reduce fehling’s reagent

b) It undergoes mutarotation like glucose and fructose

c) It undergoes inversion in the configuration on hydrolysis

d) It is laevorotatory in nature .

 

30. Phenol does not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction easily due to:

a) acidic nature of phenol

b) partial double bond character of C-OH bond

c) partial double bond character of C-C bond

d)instability of phenoxide ion

 

31. Which of the following has highest ionisation enthalpy?

a)Nitrogen

b)Phosphorus

c)Oxygen

d)Sulphur

 

32. Metal M ions form accp structure. Oxide ions occupy ½ octahedral and ½ tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the oxide?

a)MO

b)MO2

c)MO3

d) M2O3

 

33. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives ‘X’ while theof toluene with Cl2 in presence of light gives ‘Y’. Thus ‘X’ and ‘Y’are:

a) X = benzyl chloride Y = o and p – chlorotoluene

b) X = m – chlorotoluene Y = p – chlorotoluene

c) X = o and p–chlorotoluene Y = trichloromethylbenzene

d) X= benzyl chloride, Y = m-chlorotoluene

 

34.Ozone is a/ an __________ molecule and the two O-O bond lengths in ozone are (i)_______-and (ii) ____________

a) linear ,110pm ; 148pm

b) angular, 110pm ; 148pm

c)linear, 128pm ; 128pm

d)angular, 128pm ; 128pm

 

35. Water retention or puffiness due to high salt intake occurs due to:

a)diffusion

b)vapour pressure difference

c) osmosis

d)reverse osmosis

 

36. In the following reaction,identify A and B:

C6H12O6 Acetic anhydride A

Conc. nitric acid
B

a) A= COOH-(CH2)4 -COOH, B= OHC-(CHOCOCH3)4 -CH2OCOCH3

b) A= COOH-(CH2)4 -CHO , B= OHC-(CHOCOCH3)4 -CH2OCOCH3

c) A= OHC-(CHOCOCH3)3-CH2OCOCH3 B= COOH-(CH2)4 -CHO ,

d) A= OHC-(CHOCOCH3)4-CH2OCOCH3 B= COOH-(CH2)4 -COOH

 

37. In lake test for Al3+ ions, there is the formation of coloured ‘floating lake’. It is due to:

a)Absorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]

b)Absorption of litmus by Al(OH)3

c)Adsorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]

d) Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3

 

38. A unit cell of NaCl has 4 formula units. Its edge length is 0.50 nm. Calculate the density if molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g/mol.

a) 1 g/cm3

b)2 g/cm3

c) 3 g/cm3

d)4g/cm3

 

 

39.Which one of the following are correctly arranged on the basis of the property indicated:

a)I2< Br2<F2<Cl2 [ increasing bond dissociation enthalpy]

b) H2O > H2S<H2Te<H2Se [ increasing acidic strength]

c) NH3 < N2O< NH2OH<N2O5 [ increasing oxidation state]

d) BiH3<SbH3<AsH3<PH3<NH3 [ increasing bondangle]

 

40. What would be the reactant and re

a) Propanal and propyl magnesium bromide

b) 3-methylbutanal and 2-methyl magnesium

c) 2-dimethylpropanone and methyl magnesium iodide

d) 2- methylpropanal and isopropyl magnesium iodide

 

41. o-hydroxy benzyl alcohol when reacted with PCl

a) o- hydroxy benzyl chloride

b) 2- chloromethylphenol

c) o-chloromethylchlorobenzene

d) 4-hydroxymethylphenol

 

42. Which of the following statements is true:

a)Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.

b) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent as well as the hydrides.

c)Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent as well as the weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.

d) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent and the weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.

 

43.Identify the secondary alcohols from the following set:

i)CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3

ii) (C2H5)3COH

iii)

iv)

a)(i) and (iv)

b)(i) and (iii)

c)(i) and (ii)

d)(i), (iii) and (iv)

 

44. Alkenes decolourise bromine water in presence of CCl

a)allyl bromide

b)vinyl bromide

c)bromoform

d)vicinal dibromide

What would be the reactant and reagent used to obtain 2, 4-dimethyl pentan-
(a) Propanal and propyl magnesium bromide methyl magnesium iodide
dimethylpropanone and methyl magnesium iodide
methylpropanal and isopropyl magnesium iodide
hydroxy benzyl alcohol when reacted with PCl3 gives the product as (IUPAC name)
chloromethylchlorobenzene

Which of the following statements is true:
(a)Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
(b) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent as well as the strongest base among Group 15
(c)Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent as well as the weakest base among Group 15
(d) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent and the weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.
ols from the following set:
Alkenes decolourise bromine water in presence of CCl4 due to formation of:
-3-ol?
gives the product as (IUPAC name)
(a)Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
strongest base among Group 15
(c)Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent as well as the weakest base among Group 15
(d) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent and the weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.

45. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of Flourine but greater than
Nitrogen.
Reason (R): Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow the order Nitrogen > Oxygen >
Fluorine
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c)A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

 

46. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Alkyl halides are insoluble in water.

Reason (R): Alkyl halides have halogen attached to sp3 hybrid carbon.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c)A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

47. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion(A): Molarity of a solution changes with temperature.
Reason (R): Molarity is a colligative property.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c)A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

48. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion(A):SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an oxidising agent.
Reason(R):Reducing property of dioxide decreases from SO2 to TeO2.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c)A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

49.Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A):Cryoscopic constant depends on nature of solvent.
Reason(R ):Cryoscopic constant is a universal constant.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c)A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

SECTION C
This section consists of 6multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any5. In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50.Match the following:
I II
(i)Amino acids (A)protein
(ii)Thymine (B)Nucleic acid
(iii)Insulin ( C)DNA
(iv)phosphodiester linkage (D)Zwitter ion
(v) Uracil
Which of the following is the best matched options?

(a) i-A, v- D, iii- C, iv-B
(b) i-D, ii-C, iii- A, iv-B
(c) i-D, v- D, iii- A, iv-B
(d) i-A, ii- C, iii- D, iv-B

51. Which of the following analogies is correct:
(a)Nitrogen: 1s2
2s2
2p3 :: Argon:1s2
2s2
2p6
(b)Carbon: maximum compounds :: Xenon: no compounds
(c) XeF2: Linear :: ClF3: Trigonal planar
(d)Helium: meteorological observations:: Argon: metallurgical processes

52. Complete the following analogy:
Same molecular formula but different structures: A:: Non superimposable mirror images: B
(a) A:Isomers B: Enantiomer
(b) A: Enantiomers B: Racemic mixture
(c) A: Sterioisomers B: Retention
(d) A: IsomersB: Sterioisomers

CASE1: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions 53-55
Early crystallographers had trouble solving the structures of inorganic solids using X-ray
diffraction because some of the mathematical tools for analyzing the data had not yet been
developed. Once a trial structure was proposed, it was relatively easy to calculate the
diffraction pattern, but it was difficult to go the other way (from the diffraction pattern to the
structure) if nothing was known a priori about the arrangement of atoms in the unit cell. It
was important to develop some guidelines for guessing the coordination numbers and
bonding geometries of atoms in crystals. The first such rules were proposed by Linus Pauling,
who considered how one might pack together oppositely charged spheres of different radii.
Pauling proposed from geometric considerations that the quality of the “fit” depended on
the radius ratio of the anion and the cation.
If the anion is considered as the packing atom in the crystal, then the smaller cation fills
interstitial sites (“holes”). Cations will find arrangements in which they can contact the
largest number of anions. If the cation can touch all of its nearest neighbour anions then the
fit is good. If the cation is too small for a given site, that coordination number will be
unstable and it will prefer a lower coordination structure. The table below gives the ranges of
cation/anion radius ratios that give the best fit for a given coordination geometry.
Coordination
number
Geometry ρ = rcation/ranion
2 linear 0 – 0.155
3 triangular 0.155 – 0.225
4 tetrahedral 0.225 – 0.414
4 square planar 0.414 – 0.732
6 octahedral 0.414 – 0.732
8 cubic 0.732 – 1.0
12 cuboctahedral 1.0
(Source: Ionic Radii and Radius Ratios. (2021, June 8). Retrieved June 29, 2021, from
https://chem.libretexts.org/@go/page/183346)
Q53. The radius of Ag+
ion is 126pm and of I-
ion is 216pm. The coordination number of Ag+
ion is:
(a)2
(b)3
(c)6
(d)8
Q54. A solid AB has square planar structure. If the radius of cation A+
is 120pm, calculate
the maximum possible value of anion B-
(a)240 pm
(b)270 pm
(c)280 pm
(d)290 pm
Q55.A “good fit” is considered to be one where the cation can touch:
(a)all of its nearest neighbour anions.
(b) most of its nearest neighbour anions.
(c)some of its nearest neighbour anions.
(d) none of its nearest neighbour anions.

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 11 Economics 2021-22

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 11 Economics 2021-22

All questions are compulsory. Each carries 1 mark.

1. When the values of the variable that increased not in jumps….

a) continuous variables

b) discrete variables

c) flow variable

d) stock variable

 

2. What do you mean by cumulative frequency series?

a) adding the corresponding values

b) difference between the two values

c) total of all values

d) none

 

3. Which is not the objective of classification?

a) attractive and effective

b) comparability

c) simplification and briefness

d) stability

 

4. Identify that it is not the characteristics of the good classification?

a) Comprehensiveness

b) Clarity

c) elastic

d) none

 

5. In which case the upper limit of one class interval is the lower limit of the next class interval?

a) inclusive series 

b) exclusive series

c) variables

d) cumulative frequency series

 

6. In which lower limit of the first class interval and the upper limit of last class interval is missing?

a) inclusive series

b) exclusive series

c) open end series

d) none

 

7. Which is not the component of a table?

a) Headnote

b) Footnote

c) body or field

d) unit

 

8. MP, AP, govt is an example of…….

a) Source

b) Abbreviations

c) Headnote

d) Footnote

 

9. When the data is to be classified according to the time…

a) temporal classification

b) quantitative classification

c) qualitative classification

d) spatial classification

 

10. When the data are to be classified according to the place or a location is called___.

a) Temporal classification

b) Quantitative classification

c) Qualitative classification

d) spatial classification

 

11. is an example of_____

a) bold line

c) dotted line

c) broken line

d) none

 

12. Which is a limitation of diagramatic and graphic presentation?

a) limited use

b) simple

c) from left to right or bottom to top

d) attractive and effective

 

13. Identify that which one is not a type of bar diagram?

a) Pie or circular diagram

b) simple bar diagram

c) multiple bar diagram

d) subdivided bar diagram

 

14. In which curve a curve is plotted by joining the midpoints of the all tops of a histogram?

a) frequency curve

b) frequency polygon

c) histogram

d) none

 

15. When the cummulative frequencies are plotted on the graph paper….

a) frequency curve

b) frequency polygon

c) ogive

d) histogram

 

16. Bars may be ________

a) Vertical

b) Horizontal

c) Both a & c

d) None

 

17. A person who consumes goods and services is called?

a) Customer

b) Consumer

c) Producer

d) Retailer

 

18. The process of converting raw material into finished product is called?

a) Consumption

b) Production

c) Distribution

d) Factors of production

 

19. Which one is a scope of statistics?

a) Descriptive statistics

b)  Quantitative statistics

c) Intersectoral statistics

d) Qualitative statistics

 

20. Identify the limitation of statistics?

a) statistics is only one of the method of studying a problem

b) economic equilibrium

c) quantitative expression of economic problems

d) Economic forecasting

 

21. Which one is the importance of statistics in economics?

a) statistical results are based only on average

b) statistics does not deal with individual relation

c) statistics deals only with quantitative characteristics

d) construction of economic theories or economic models

 

22. This definition is given by, “it is a store of quantitative information in example quantification of facts or findings….

a) Layman

b) Goseen’s

c) Adam Smith

d) Fayol

 

23. Who is the type of collection of primary data?

a) Interview method

b) Libraries

c) Literature

d) Census of India

 

24. Survey was on drinking water, sanitation, hygiene and housing condition is to be conducted by…..

a) census of India

b) Reports and publications of National sample survey office.

c) census commissioner

d) State government

 

25. Language of the questions should be simple and clear is a quality of a good questionnaire?

a) Simplicity

b) limited no. of questions

c) proper order of the questions

d) no undesirable questions

 

26. We measure literacy rate, sex composition of population by?

a) census of India

b) population projection

c) NSSO 

d) Central government

 

27. According to secondary data important data related to research is to be find out by?

a) Libraries

b) Questionnaire

c) mail survey

d) Observation method

 

28. It is the most frequently used method when the information has to be collected quickly and inexpensive?

a) Mail interview

b) Telephonic interview

c) Questionnaire  

d) personal interview

 

29. The list of the questions is to be called?

a) Series of the questions

b) proper order of the questions

c) Questions list

d) Questionnaire

 

30. The fresh hand data is also known as?

a) secondary data

b) primary data

c) Tertiary data

d) none of these

 

31. After a research problem has defined, the next step is?

a) collection of data

b) Analysis of data

c) interpretation of data

d) none of these

 

32. Customer movement is an example of?

a) observation method

b) interview method

c) Libraries

d) Literature

 

33. A person who takes an interview is called ?

a) Interviewer 

b) Interviewee

c) Respondent

d) Researcher

 

34. Face to face interview is also known as?

a) Mail interview

b) Telephonic interview

c) personal Interview

d) Questionnaire

 

35. Which one is not the component of Economics?

a) Distribution

b) Consumption

c) Production

d) Saving

 

36. The expenditure by the producer on the purchase of fixed assets is called?

a) Expenses

b) Revenue

c) Investment

d) None of the above

 

37. Graphs may be divided on

a) one variable graph

b) two variables graph

c) two or more graphs

d) none

 

38. The title of the rows of table are called …

a) Stubs

b) Captions

c) title

d) none

 

39. The title of the columns of the table are called……

a) Captions

b) Stubs

c) Footnote

d) Headnote

 

40. Homogeneity means…..

a) same value

b) different value

c) both a & c

d) none

 

Class 12 Physical Education MCQ on Children and women in Sports Unit 5

Class 12 Physical Education MCQ on Children and women in Sports Unit 5

 

(UNIT – 5) CHILDREN AND WOMEN IN SPORTS

Case Studies- MCQ

 

Q.1. Below given the summary data of a survey conducted on the students with postural deformities.
25% students have Round Shoulders
05% students have Knock Knees
20% students have Bow legs
05% students have Flat Foot
20% students have Scoliosis
20% students have Kyphosis
10% students have Lordosis

On the basis of the above data provided, answer the following questions.

1. 25% of the students suffering from

a. Scoliosis

b. Fat foot

c. Round shoulders

d. Lordosis

ANS: c(round shoulders)

2. Among Led deformity, which category is highly affected

a. Fat Foot

b. Knock Knees

c. Lordosis

d. Bow Legs

ANS: d( Bow legs)

 

3. 50% of the students are suffering from the following combination

a. ROUND SHOULDERS & LEG DEFORMITIES

b.SCOLIOSIS & LORDOSIS

c. KYPHOSIS & LEG DEFORMITY

d.BOW LEGS & LORDOSIS

ANS: a (Round shoulders & Legs deformities)

 

4. Spiral deformities are

a. Lordosis, Round Shoulders, Flat Foot

b.Kyphosis, Lordosis, Scoliosis

c.Scoliosis, Kyphosis, Flat Foot

d.Round Shoulders, Bow legs, Scoliosis

ANS: b (Kyphosis, Lordosis, Scoliosis)

 

5. Among Spiral deformities which category is less affected

a.Lordosis

b.Kyphosis

c.Scoliosis

d.Black Box

ANS: a (lordosis)

 

Q. 2. Deepa wants to learn badminton, but her brother made fun of her and ridiculed her. Her parents, seeing her interest, sent her to a professional coach in the Academy to learn that Sport properly and professionally.
Based on this case study, answer the following questions.

1. Why was Deepa ridiculed by her brother?
(a) She wanted to learn sport

(b) She did not want to learn badminton

(c) She wanted to have fun

(d) She is not serious about sports

Ans: a (She wanted to learn sports

2. What values are shown by her parents.

(a)Right judgement

(b) No gender discrimination

(c) High attitude

(d) Indiscipline

Ans: b (No gender discrimination)

 

3. What does this show about females?

(a) Girls awareness

(b) Interest in sports

(c) Gender discrimination

(d) Support to boys

Ans: a (Girls awareness)

 

Q.3. Mr.Alex, Physical education Teacher at Public School observed that a student of class VIII has a problem of Lumbar-Spine, which is bent in front beyond the normal level. He suggested some exercises to rectify this problem.
Based on this case study, answer the following questions.

1. What is this deformity known as?

(a) Scoliosis

(b) Lordosis

(c) Kyphosis

(d) Flat foot

Ans: b (Lordosis)

2. Lordosis is commonly known as

(a) Hollow back

(b) Hunch back

(c) Sideways bending

(d) Kyphosis

Ans: a (Hollow back)

3. Lordosis is the deformity related to

(a) Foot

(b) Vertebral column

(c) Shoulder

(d) Legs

Ans: b (Vertebral column)

 

Q.4. Anita, a student of class XII, used to read books in the library. One day she was studying the history of women participation in Indian sports and felt that they should be encouraged to actively participate in sports. She believed that impossible things can be achieved through participation in sports.
Based on this case study, answer the following questions.

1. In which year did women first participate in the Olympics?

(a) 2000

(b) 1900

(c) 2012

(d) 1947
Ans: b (1900)

2. Which of the following players is associated with Athletics?

(a) Sania Mirza

(b) Saina Nehwal

(c) Karnam Malleshwari

(d) P.T.Usha

Ans: d (P.T.Usha)

 

3. Who is the first Indian woman to win the medal at Olympics?

(a) Karnam Malleshwari (weight lifting)

(b) Mirabai Chanu

(c) Mary kom

(d) P.V.Sindhu

ANS: a (Karanam malleshwari – weight lifting)

 

Q.5. Given below is the chart which depicts the distribution of children in various age groups in a locality.
On the basis of pie chart given above, answer the following questions.

1. The locality community hall has Gymnasium. For which category do you recommend to go for gym?

a. Late childhood

b. Teenager

c. Infant

d. Early childhood

ANS: b (Teenager)

 

2. Gross Motor development primarily takes place in this age

a. Infant-hood

b. Later childhood

c.Teenage

d. Middle age

ANS: a (Infanthood)

Q. 6 In a playground of a private school, sports class is going on for all primary children. During this class some children are involved in running, throwing and hopping. Where as others are involved in ball games like Football and Handball.
On the basis of case given , answer the following questions.

 

1. Children who are involved in running, throwing and hopping belongs to which stage of growth and development?

a. Infanthood(0 – 1 yr)

b. Early childhood(2 -6 yrs.)

c. Middle childhood(7-10 yrs.)

d. Later childhood (11 – 12yrs.)

ANS: c (middle childhood)

 

2. Children who were playing ball games like Football and Handball represent which group?

a.Early childhood

b.Adolescence

c.Later childhood

d.Babyhood

ANS: c (Later Childhood)

 

Q.7. Tom’s parents gives him very good diet, encourages him to do heavy physical workouts and to play team game,s where as his brother Sam is allowed to play recreational activities.
On the basis of case given , answer the following questions.

1. Tom belongs to which stage of growth.

a. Adolescent

b. Later childhood

c. Infant

d.Old age
ANS: a (Adolescent)

 

2. Sam represents which stage of growth

a. Babyhood

b.Adolescence

c.Later childhood

d.Early childhood

ANS: d (Early childhood)

 

Q.8. Harry met with an major accident. Later on he suffered from shoulder and thoracic deformity problems. After few months he started practicing Chakrasan and Dhanurasan to rectify his deformities.
On the basis of case given , answer the following questions.
1. Harry’s accident lead his body to

a. Good posture

b. Bad posture

c. Curvature body

d. Bent body

ANS: b (Bad posture)

 

2. What may be the thoracic deformity Harry suffered from

a. Flat foot

b. Round Shoulders

c.Kyphosis

d. Bow legs

ANS: c(Kyphosis)

3. Harry practiced Chakrasan and Dhanurasan to rectify which deformity.

a.Round shoulders

b. Bow legs

c.Flat Foot

d. Lordosis

ANS: a (Round shoulders)

Q.9. Meena’s coach was training her for District level competition. Which giving coaching he realized that her Knees are always getting close to one and other. Than he recommended her two asanas, like Garud Asana and Ardh Matasyendra Asana. By continuous practice her problem was rectified.
On the basis of case given , answer the following questions

1. Meena was suffering from which deformity

a. Thoracic

b. Leg

c. Vertibral

d. Spine

ANS:b (leg)

2. Garud Asana and Ardh Matasyendra Asana is recommended for which deformity

a. Scoliosis

b.Lordosis

c.Kyphosis

d.Bow Legs

ANS: d(Bow legs)

 

Q.10. In a school for special children, a physical instructor was planning for the physical activities which involves yogasanas, movement coordination as the growth and development in children was not up to the mark.
1.When growth and development in children is not up to the mark, it gives

a.Bad posture

b. Good posture

c. Good Growth

d.Good development

ANS:a (Bad Posture)

2. In the above case, many children are prone to various types of

a. Fractures

b. Deformities

c. Diseases

d. None

ANS: a (Fractures)

 

Knowledge & Understanding -MCQ

 

1. Which development is motor development

A. Bones & muscles

B. Sense Organs

C. Disorder development

D. Postural deformity

 

Q.2. Select the right no of motor skills development in children

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 1

 

Q.3. Painting, catching activities are the examples of

A. Gross motor skill development

B. Fine motor skill development

C. Sensory skill development

D. Bone & muscles development

 

Q.5. Select the correct development during infancy state.

A. Moral values

B. Various senses

C. fine motor skill

D. Writing skills

 

Q.6. Pre-school children learn things by

A. Imagination

B. Practice

C. Lecture

D. Repetition

 

Q.7. In the childhood, children’s behaviour is mostly influenced by

A. Friends

B. School

C. Peer group

D. family

 

Q.8. In adolescence exercises help to

A. Strengthens of cardio-vascular system

B. Increases age toward old

C. Move away from society

D. Remove various senses

 

Q.10. Deformity means

A. The malformation of any component of the body

B. The of malfunction of body’s organs

C. The malfunction of joints of the body

D. De-shaped of muscles

 

Q.12. Lordosis deformity is

A. Lateral curvature of the spine

B. Arch of sole of feet

C. Abnormal backword curvature of the thoracic region of the spin

D. Agora vatted lower curvature of the lumber region

 

Q.13. Scoliosis is postural deformity where the person body position become-

A. Lateral curvature of the spine

B. Arch of sole of feet

C. Wide gap between the knees

D. A side way curvature of the spine

 

Q.14. What are the causes of “flat foot’’.

A. Weak muscles of the foot

B. Improper shoes of carry heavy weight

C. Healthy muscles of the body

D. Both (a) & (b)

 

Q.17. Select the correct reason for less participation of female in sports.

A. Low physical fitness

B. Lack of education

C. Good Legal system

D. (a) & (b) both

 

Q.18. Select the correct reason to improve participation of female in sports

A. Good legal system

B. Female role model

C. Both (a) & (b)

D. Improper motivation

 

Q.19. Menarche is the

A. Very first menstrual bleeding in girls

B. Last menstrual bleeding in girls.

C. Irregular bleeding in girls.

D. Regular bleeding in girls.

 

Q.20. The average menstrual cycle consists of days.

(a) 10–15 days

B. 15–25 days

C. 21–35 days

D. 05-10 days

 

Q.21. Define menstrual Dysfunction

A. Irregular menstrual bleeding

B. Delay of menstrual cycle

C. Lack of Haemoglobin

D. Extra amount of Haemoglobin

 

Q.22. Osteoporosis mean.

A. Insufficient calcium in bone

B. Low bone density

C. a & b both

D. None of these

 

Q24. Anorexia nervosa is a

A. mental disorder illness

B. Wrong perception

C. Normal diet related diseases

D. Serious disease

 

Q.25. Amenorrhoea is the caused by

a. Hormonal imbalance, irregularity in diet

B. Hormonal Imbalance in reproductive system

c. Hormonal imbalance & irregular in menstrual cycle

D. Hormonal balance regular in menstrual period

 

Q.26. Bulimia Nervosa is an

A. Eating disorder

B. Eating disability

C. eating of balance diet

D. eating of habits

 

Application Based -MCQ

 

1. Identify the postural deformity

a) Bow Leg

b) Knock Knee

c) Flat Foot

d) None

Answer: a)

 

2. Identify the postural deformity having hump

a) Lordosis

b) Kyphosis

c) Scoliosis

d) Lumbar deformity
Answer: b)

 

3. Later Childhood Growth and Development occurs during _____ phase.

a) 1 to 2 Years

b) 7 to 12 Years

c) 13 to 19 Years

d) 20 and above
Answer: b)

 

4. Gross motor components develop mostly during this stage of Growth and Development.

a) Early Childhood

b) Later Childhood

c) Infancy

d) Adolescence
Answer: c)

 

Assertion & Reasoning -MCQ

 

1. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Gross Moto Development is the development of the large muscles in the child’s body.
Reason (R): It allows the movement of fingers and hands like picking up the objects, using cups, holding and using of pen, pencils.

Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true,(R) but is not correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true,(R)is but not correct explanation of (A).

 

2. Assertion (A): Wrong sitting posture creates postural disabilities.
Reason (R): Correct body posture reflects good personality.
Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) (A) is true but (R) is false.
c) (A) is false but (R) is true.
d) Both (A) and (R) are true,(R) but is not correct explanation of (A).
Correct Answer: (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

 

3. Assertion (A): Children in early childhood age should be physically active.
Reason (R): Two hours of active play per day help in physical and mental of the child.
Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true.
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

4. Assertion (A): Environment does not affect the growth and development of
a child in Later Childhood stage
Reason (R): Friendships in this age are often with same gender peers usually based on proximity, Common interest/ hobbies, or other perceived commonalities.

Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true.
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (d) A is false but R is true.

 

5. Assertion (A): Inactive Posture: when a person is sleeping or having rest and body requires minimum muscular efforts.
Reason (R): Active Posture: where integrated muscular activity is required.

Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (b) Both A and R are true but, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

 

6. Assertion (A): Scoliosis caused due to one side paralysis of spinal muscles, short leg of one side, wrong sitting posture and hereditary defects in structure.
Reason (R): Scaliosis cannot be prevented nor be corrected.
Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true.
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.

 

6. Assertion (A): Bow legs is the defect of legs, in which legs bend outward.
Reason (R): Exercises that help to improve Bow Legs are walking inward, Ardh Matsendra asans , Garud Asana etc.

Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true.
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

7. Assertion (A): Another name of Kyphosis is Hunchback.
Reason (R): It is a convexity of thoracic region of spine.

Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true.
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

8. Assertion (A): In Tokyo Olympics Pusarla Venkata Sindhu won silver medal In badminton.
Reason (R): She is the first Indian women, who won two medals in Olympics.
Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true.
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true .

9. Assertion (A): Flat Foot is a deformity in which there is no arch in the foot and the foot is completely flat.
Reason (R): Use of poor quality footwear is one of the causes of Flat Foot.
Codes:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true.
c) (A) is true, but (R) are false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) are true.
Correct Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

 

 

 

 

MCQ on Bio mechanics in Sports Physical Education class 12

MCQ on Bio mechanics in Sports Physical Education class 12

 

(UNIT – 8)
Bio mechanics in sports
Case Studies- MCQ

 

CASE 1: The place of biomechanics is very important in the game, its knowledge is very important for the players and the coach, through this we try to improve our game and make it better, it leads the game towards the best performance.
1. A movement away from the midline:
A) Adduction
B) Flexion
C) Abduction
D) Extension

Answer : C, Abduction

2. A movement towards the midline.
A) Adduction
B) Flexion
C) Abduction
D) Extension

Answer : A, Adduction

3. A movement that decreases the angle between two body parts
A) Adduction
B) Flexion
C) Abduction
D) Extension

Answer : B, Flexion

4. A movement that increases the angle between two body parts
A) Adduction
B) Flexion
C) Abduction
D) Extension

Answer :D,Extension

Case-2. There are different types of competition in the sport of athletics. Like running, jumping and throwing, all these sports involve the ability of the players as well as the facts of some biomechanics. Through which the player is able to perform well in this competition. Like Neeraj Chopra performed in Tokyo Olympics, if the javelin release angle is in between 40 to 45 degrees, then it covers more distance, we study all these facts in biomechanics.

1. In the game of cricket, the ball is hit by the batsman, the ball after impacting the bat crosses the boundary line, choose one of the options given below and state what Newton is between the ball and the bat The rule is working.
A) Newton’s 2nd Law
B) Newton’s 1st Law
C) Newton’s 3rd Law
D) None of the above
Answer : C, Newton’s 3rd Law

2. Which Newton’s law applied when the athlete is in running position?
A) Newton’s 2nd Law
B) Newton’s 1st Law
C) Newton’s 3rd Law
D) None of the above
Answer : A,Newton’s 2nd Law

3. Jumping jacks exercise is related to which movement.
A) Adduction – Abduction
B) Flexion – Extension
C) Supination – Pronation
D) None of the above
Answer : A, Adduction – Abduction

4. When we walk, our leg and hand move front and back this is related to which movement.
A) Adduction – Abduction
B) Flexion – Extension
C) Supination – Pronation
D) None of the above
Answer :B, Flexion – Extension

 

5. Which Newton’s law applied when the ball was placed in the penalty spot?
A) Newton’s 2nd Law
B) Newton’s 1st Law
C) Newton’s 3rd Law
D) None of the above
Answer : B, Newton’s 1st Law

Case-3. In Biomechanics class, Ramana, the teacher, brings the students to the physics lab of his school. The students get confused why they bring them in physics lab instead of going to field. But in lab they have their class. After the completion of the class they realize the fact.

1. Why does the teacher bring the students to physics lab for biomechanics class?

a) It deals with physics principle

b) Sliding friction

c) Rolling friction

d) Static friction

Answer : a), It deals with physics principle

2. Biomechanics is associated with.

a) Mechanics

b) Physics

c) Mechanics and Physics

d) Mechanics and Anatomy

Answer : d),Mechanics and Anatomy

3. Friction can be increased by which of the following?

a) Smooth surface

b) Dry surface

c) Decrease of the weight

d) all of the above

Answer : b), Dry Surface

 

Case-4. During the physical education class Newton’s Laws of motion were disclosed and their practical application in sports events was explained to the students. These laws are most relevant in sports as most of the actions in sports are related to these laws.

1. News first Law of motion is also known as?

a) Law of inertia

b) Law of momentum

c) Law of reaction

d) Law of acceleration

Answer : a), Law of Inertia

 

2. What is the relationship between mass and force?

a) Directly proportional

b) No relationship

c) Inversely proportional

d) Both a and b

Answer : d),Both a and b

3. Newton’s Second law is also known as

a) The law of reaction

b) The law of inertia

c) The Law of acceleration

d) None of these

Answer : C), The Law of acceleration

Case-5. Mr Muralidharan is explaining to his trainers, It has become necessary to have good understanding of the application of physics to sports, as physical principles such as motion, resistance, momentum and friction play an important part in most sporting events.

1. What are the areas biomechanics support the performance?

a) Performance Enhancement

b) Technique improvement

c) Equipment improvement

d) All of the above

Answer : d), All of the above

2. What is explaining Mr Muralidharan to his trainers?

a) Application of physics to sports

b) No need of any applications

c) Physics may not apply

d) Biomechanics is not related to sports

Answer : a), Application of Physics to sports

 

3. What are the techniques are modified on the basis of biomechanics?

a) Normal cloths

b) Aerodynamic Cloths

c) cotton cloths

d) none of the above
Answer : b) Aerodynamic cloths

Case- Mr Uday is asking his friend that a sports person does at least one of the four types of body movement at a time when she/he engages in a game.
On the basis of the situation given, answer the following questions:

1. When the sports person squats, which of the following movement will she/he be performing?

a) Internal rotation

b) Extension

c) Side flexion

d) Adduction

Answer : b), Extension

2. Which body parts falls in the exception zone of flexion?

a) Thumb

b) Wrist

c) Knee

d) Elbow
Answer : a) Thumb

3. If a sports person flaps her/his arms to warm up, what sort of movement(s) is she/he performing?

a) Extension and Flexion

b) Extension and Adduction

c) Flexion and Abduction

d) Abduction and Adduction

Answer : d), Abduction and Adduction

Case- Sir Isaac Newton (1642 – 1727) was an English scientist who made great contributions to physics, Optics, Maths and Astronomy. He is known for his Three Laws of Motion and the Universal Law of Gravitation.

1. According to Newton’s first law of motion, a moving object that is not acted on by an unbalanced force will.

a) remain in motion

b) eventually come to a stop.

c) change its momentum

d) accelerate.

Answer :C), Change its momentum

2. According to which Newton’s law of motion, the swimmer moves her hand down and to the left and her body goes forward to the right.

a) Newton’s 1st Law

b) Newton’s 2nd Law

c) Newton’s3rd Law

d) The law of acceleration

 

Answer :C, Newtons 3rd Law

3. A force in the opposite direction to the motion of the object will cause the object to

a) speed up

b) slowdown

c) turn

d) crash

Answer : a) Speed Up

 

Knowledge & Understanding -MCQ

1. Which is not the Importance of Biomechanics

a. Improvement of Technique

B. To under stance the structure of Movement & effect of forces on the Movement

C. To understand Physiology of human body

D. Improvement of sports Equipment’s

 

2. Biomechanics Deals units.

A. Muscles involved in Movement

B. Effect of force on Different Movements done by human body

C. To understand the physiology of the body

D. To understand Time & Distance concept of Various Movements

 

3. Bending of Elbow when our hand is going toward our chest is

(a) Flexion

(b) Extension

(c) Abduction

(d) Adduction

 

4. Opening of hand sidewise when our hand is moving away from body is example of

(a) Abduction

(b) Adduction

(c) Flexion

(d) Extension

 

5. Newton’s 2nd law is also known as

(a) Law of Action Reaction

B. Law of Inertia

C. Law of Acceleration

D. Law of velocity

 

6. In the long jump take off which law works

(a) 1st law of newton

B. 2nd law of newton

C. 3rd law of newton

D. Low of conservation of mass.

 

7. The force which oppose the relative motion between the surfaces of two object is known as

(a)Frictional force

(b) Gravitational force

(c) Applied force

(d) Tension force

 

8. The force produced when the surfaces of two objects comes to contract of each other & tends to move but their is no relative motion between them is known as

(a)Static friction

(b) Sliding friction

(c) Rolling friction

(d) Fluid friction

 

9. Which Newton’s law will apply while taking off in long jump?

A) 3rd newton’s law

B) 1st newton’s law

C) 2nd newton’s law

D) None of these

Answer :- (A)

 

10. Which statement is wrong in the statement of Newton’s first law given below?

A) Football on the field.

B) Book placed on the table.

C) A ball rolling in a cricket field.

D) Dribbling in a basketball game.

Answer :- (D)

 

Assertion & Reasoning -MCQ

1. Assertion (A): The coordinated action of skeletal muscles with bones of skeletal system forms a complex system of anatomical levers.
Reason (R): Flexion of elbow is second class lever.
Code:
A) (A) is true but (R) is false
B) Both (A) and (R) are true
C) Both (A) and (R) are false
D) (R) is true but (A) is false
Answer – (A) :(A) is true but (R) is false

(Assertion is true and reason is false because flexion movement in elbow work 3rd class lever.)

 

2. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): For a squat jump one goes down at first by flexing hip, knee and ankle joints.
Reason (R): Lowering of Centre of gravity increases degree of stability.
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer – (B) :Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

3. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): If the net external force on the body is zero, then its acceleration is zero. Reason (R): Acceleration does not depend on force.
Which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer –(C): (A) is true, but (R) is false.

4. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Increase of angle of knee is called extension.
Reason (R): The movement by which the two elements of any jointed part are drawn away from each other.
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer –(A): Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

5. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The first law states that an object at rest will stay at rest, and an object in motion will stay in motion unless an external force acts on it. Reason (R): The motion of a ball falling down through the atmosphere, or a model rocket being launched up into the atmosphere are both examples of Newton’s first law.
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer –(A) : Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

6. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): For the motion of electron around nucleus, Newton’s second law is used. Reason (R): Newton’s Second Law of Motion says that acceleration (gaining speed) happens when a force acts on a mass (object).
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer – (A): Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

7. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): A cricketer moves his hands forward to catch a ball so as to catch it easily without hurting. Reason (R): He tries to decrease the distance travelled by the ball so that it hurts less.
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer –(B) : Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

8. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): A block placed on a table is at rest, because action force cancels the reaction force on the block. Reason (R): The net force on the block is zero. Because as there is no displacement.
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer –(B) : Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

9. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Friction is the resistance to motion of one object moving relative to another. Reason (R): Though friction dissipates power, but without friction we cannot walk.
Which one of the following is correct?
(A) is false but (R) is true
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer –(C) : Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

10. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The third law of motion concludes that the forces occur in action and reaction. Reason (R): The action force is equal to the reaction force.
(A) is false but (R) is true
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer –(B) : Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Reason (R): A weight-lifter performing a bench press applies force to the barbell to lift it and the barbell in turn pushes down the hands of the weight-lifters.
In the context of the above two statements, which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer –(A): Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Newton’s second low of motion gives the measurement of force.
Reason (R): According to Newton’s second law of motion, force is directly proportional to the rate of change of momentum.

In the context of the above two statements, which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer –(A): Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

13. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Newton’s first law of motion is also called the law of Inertia.
Reason (R): According to first law of motion everything in the universe is lazy and needs some force to move, slow down, stop or change direction.
In the context of the above two statements, which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer – (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

14. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): sports person performance can be improved by improving his/her technique.
Reason (R): The coaches many used their knowledge of biomechanics to rectify the errors made by the sports person in order to improve the execution of a skill.
In the context of the above two statements, which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer –(A) :Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

CBSE Term 1 Exam 2022: Important notice released regarding discrepancy in answer keys, OMR evaluation

Important notice released regarding discrepancy in answer keys, OMR evaluation

CBSE Term 1 Exam 2022 Answer Key - important notice released

CBSE Term 1 Exam 2022 Answer Key – important notice released

Key Highlights

    • CBSE Board Exam 2021 Term 1 for Class 10, 12 are being conducted at present across the country.
    • The board releases the answer key after every examination and the OMRs are evlauated on the same day.
    • On a few errors noted in CBSE Answer keys, the board has now released important notice for schools, teachers.

 

Central Board of Secondary Education, CBSE is presently conducting Term 1 Exams 2022 for Classes 10 and 12. The examination is in multiple choice question or MCQ format and students are required to fill optically marked response or OMR sheets. The OMR sheets are evaluated on the same date based on answer key shared by the board after the end of the exam. Over the past few exams, a few discrepancies have been noted in the answer key supplied by the board, prompting CBSE to release special notice on the same.

In the notice shared by the board, CBSE has asked the evaluators to stick to the answer key shared by the board while evaluating the OMR sheets filled by students. As for the inadverdent errors in the answer key, the board has said that they would be duly noted and accordingly corrected once the result is compiled by the board.

The notice reads, ‘Although every possible care is taken by the Board, there may still be a possibility of some ambiguity in questions or discrepancy in answer keys. However, the Board has a well settled system to address such issues. Therefore, it is informed that the situs slot gacor evaluators may check/evaluate the OMRs according to the answer keys provided to them.’

As for the errors, CBSE has asked schools to share any observation that they might have regarding the question papers with the board. The “observations or feedback received will be duly considered on the recommendation of subject experts at the time of preparation of results so that no student is put to any disadvantage”, reads the notice.

CBSE Term 1 2022 Board Exam and Result

CBSE Term 1 2022 Board Exams for Classes 10 and 12 are being conducted in MCQ pattern across the country. Students are given 90 minutes to attempt questions and mark responses on OMR sheets. These are then evaluated by the teachers in the schools where the exam centres have been set.

Teachers are required to send the evaluated OMR sheets on the same day to CBSE and upload the correct responses of the students on the online portal. The marks, please note, would be given by the board at the end of the examination, basis its internal calculation.

As per the Term 1 Board Exam circular, CBSE results would be released soon after the end of the term examination. The board would only share the marks scored by the students and not grade their performance at this time. The final result for the board exam, including judi slot online pass or fail would be prepared only after Term 2 examinations are conducted in April/ May.

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 12 Business Studies 2021-22

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 12 Business Studies 2021-22

Time: 90 Min

Sub- Business Studies                                  

Maximum Marks-40

General instructions:

>There are a total 60 questions in the paper out of which 50 questions are to be attempt.

>The paper is divided into three sections.

>Section A contains 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

>Section B contains 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

>Section c contains 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.

>All questions carry equal marks.

Section-A

1. Name the process of working with and through others to effectively achieve organisational objectives by efficiently using limited resources in a changing environment.

a) Management

b) Planning

c) Organising

d) Controlling

 

2. Which of the following functions of Management helps in assigning duties, grouping task, establishing the authority and allocating resources required to carry out a specific plan?

a) Planning

b) Directing

c) Staffing

d) organizing

 

3. Management is……

a) A science

b) An art

c) Both a and c    

d) None

 

4. Coordination is…

a) A random effort and established by itself

b) A deliberate effort and established by itself

c) Random effort where manager also makes an effort to co-ordinate

d) Deliberate effort where manager also makes an effort to co-ordinate

 

5. Making time table in an educational institute is an example of…..

a) Organizing

b) coordination

c) Controlling

d) none

 

6. Which principle of management is being violated if management does not fulfill its promise to increase wages of the workers after the mission is accomplished.

a) Order

b) Equity

c) Discipline

d) Initiative

 

7. Name the principle of scientific management which suggested the introduction of scientific investigation and analysis.

a) science not rule of thumb

b) harmony not discord

c) cooperation not individualism

d) development of each person to her or his greatest efficiency and prosperity

 

8. Amrita keeps machines material tools etc ready for operation by concerned workers whose work is described by this statement under functional foremanship?

a) Gang boss

b) Repair boss

c) Route clerk

d) speed boss

 

9. Why did FW Taylor propose eight specialists under functional foremanship?

a) because all qualities like intelligence education text great manual dexterity energy could not be found in a single person

b) Because the number of former supervisors in a factory setup is very large.

c) because the number of workers in a factory set-up is very large

d) all of the above

 

10. Which statement is correct regarding division of work?

a) Intent is to produce more and better work from the same effort

b) work is divided into small task

c) trained specialist are required to perform each jobs

d) all of the above

 

11. The term business environment means the sum total of…

a) all individuals

b) institutions

c) Other forces that are outside the control of a business enterprise.

d) All of the above.

 

12. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a) Business environment is a relative concept.

b) Business environment is the sum total of all things internal to business firms.

c) Opportunities refer to the positive internal trends or changes that will help a firm to improve its performance.

d) None

 

13. Which of the following is not an element of social environment?

a) birth and death rate c

b) constitution of the country

c) population shifts

d) life expectancy

 

14. Which of the following dimensions of business environment includes a legislation passed by the government administrative orders issued by the government authorities?

a) Technological Environment

b) social environment

c) Legal environment

d) economic environment

 

15. The current government initiated make in India programme which is good for the manufacturing sector out of the following identify the components of business environment quoted in the above line.

a) Economic

b) political

c) Legal

d) Technological

 

16. Which of the following is a feature of planning?

a) provides direction

b) reduces the risk of uncertainty

c) focuses on achieving objectives

d) all of the above

 

17. Which of the following statement is false with respect to planning?

a) It is one of the basic managerial functions.

b) Planning is closely connected with creativity and innovations.

c) it requires taking decisions

d) none

 

18. Planning is required in all organisations at all levels and in all departments identify a feature of planning is studied in the above statement?

a) Planning is futuristic

b) planning is pervasive

c) learning is a mental exercise

d) None

 

19. Which of the following statement is true regarding planning?

a) Once plants are made to decide the future course of action the management may not be in a position to change them.

b) Planning is a one-time process

c) Planning is required only at the top level of management as plans are made by top level of management

d) Planning always leads to success.

 

20. Planning is deciding in advance what to do and how to do it,The first step of planning process is…

a) setting objectives

b) follow up

c) implementation of plan

d) developing premises

 

21. Which of the following importance of organising stimulates creativity amongst the managers?

a) development of personnel

b) optimum utilisation of resources

c) Expansion and growth 

d) None

 

22. Which of the following is not a benefit of organising?

a) clarity in working relationship

b) Adaption to change

c) expansion and growth

d) identification and obtaining competitive personal

 

23. Which of the following is true regarding organisational structure?

a) grouping of jobs of similar nature under functional structure and organising these major functions as a separate department creates a divisional structure.

b) span of management determines the levels of management in the organisation structure

c) divisional structure makes training of employees easier as the focus is only on a limited range of skills

d) all of the above

 

24. …………… Is the obligation of a subordinate to properly perform the assigned duty.

a) Authority

b) responsibility

c) Accountability

d) none

 

Section-B

25. Which of the following is an advantage of functional structure?

a) leads to an occupational specialization

b) remote control and coordination within a department

c) helps in increasing managerial and operational efficiency

d) all of the above

 

26. What does workforce analysis reveal?

a) number of human resources available

b) type of human resources available

c) Both

d) None

 

27. Management is an________ process as it is an ongoing and never ending process.

a) Continuous

b) non continuous

c) Frequent

d) alter

 

28. Which of the following nature of management involves skillful and personal application of existing knowledge to achieve desired results?

a) Science

b) Art

c) Profession

d) none

 

29. A good manager works through a combination of which of the following?

a) Practice

b) creativity and imagination

c) initiative and innovation

d) all of the above

 

30. ________comes under the top management.

a) chief executive officer

b) operations manager

c) foreman

d) supervisors

 

31. At which level managers spend more time in Planning and organising?

a) Top level

b) middle level

c) lower level 

d) all of these

 

32. Hiring of employees is done by.

a) Top level

b) Middle level

c) Lower level

d) all of these

 

33. xyz keeps machines ,material, tools,etc ready for operations by concerned workers whose work is described by this statement under functional foremanship?

a) Gang Boss

b) repair Boss

c) route Clerk

d) speed Boss

 

34. Which technique of Taylor differentiates between an efficient worker and an inefficient worker?

a) standardisation and simplification of work

b) differential piece wage system

c) Time study

d) fatigue study

 

35. Shashi joined fashion limited as head of production department and realised that company was not performing well. She developed the best method for using several parameters right from deciding the sequence of operations place of man, machine,and raw materials till the delivery of the product to the customers identify the technique of scientific management being followed by Shashi.

a) Motion study

b) fatigue study

c) method study

d) Time study

 

36. The shift of demand from soft drinks to juices is an opportunity for juice companies and thread for soft drink companies identify the feature of business environment.

a) Relativity

b) complexity

c) Uncertainty

d) Dynamic

 

37. The components of business environment keep on changing due to changes in various circumstances this shows that business environment is…

a) Dynamic

b) uncertain

c) Complex

d) Relative

 

38. Increase in the use of mobile phones and iPods instead of papers and radio refers to an example of a key component of general environment of business identify the components of business environment.

a) Technological

b) political

c) Legal

d) economic

 

39. Due to enforcement of euro-4 emission norms, an automobile company had to phase out of one of its model. Identify the dimension of environment highlighted in the given statement.

a) Technological

b) political

c) Legal

d) Economic

 

40. ______ Step in the process of planning is considered as the real point of decision making.

a) Setting objectives

b) Selecting an alternative

c) Implementation of plan

d) Developing premises

 

41. While selecting an alternative under the planning process which of the following are considered?

a) Combination of plants may be selected instead of one best source

b) Subjectivity and managers experience or judgment plays a role

c) The most feasible profitable plan with least negative consequences is chosen

d) All of the above

 

42. Planning is deciding in advance what to do and how to do it. The first step of planning process is…

a) setting objectives

b) follow up

c) implementation of plan

d) developing premises

 

43. Which of the following are considered as the pillars of marketing?

a) Packaging

b) Labelling

c) Both

d) none

 

44. ……… Refers to producing goods of predetermined specification which helps in achieving uniformity and consistency in the output.

a) Standardization

b) packaging

c) Labelling

d) Grading

 

45. Which of the following functions of marketing helps in building customer loyalty and in promoting its sale?

a) Standardization

b) Branding

c) pricing of products

d) Grading

 

46. Which of the following statement is true regarding marketing?

a) It is a process whereby people exchange goods and services for money

b) It has been referred to as performance of business activities that direct the flow of goods and services from producers to consumers.

c) It includes many activities that are performed even before goods are actually produced and continue even after the goods have been sold.

d) All of the above

 

47. Which of the following marketing functions is concerned with informing the customers about the firms products?

a) physical distribution

b) promotion

c) market planning

d) packaging and labeling

 

48. Which function of marketing is concerned with the cost and location of target market?

a) Promotion

b) warehousing

c) Transportation

d) Branding

Section-C

49. Creams and medicines are the examples of……. products.

a) Convenience

b) shopping

c) Specialty

d) none

 

50. That part of a brand which can be recognised but which is not utterable is called……..

a) Brand mark✓ 

b) Trade mark

c) Brand name

d) all of these

 

51. A car manufacturer offers to sale a particular brand of car at a discount of rupees 10000 for a limited period. Identify the sales promotion activity in the above example.

a) Refund

b) product combinations

c) Rebate

d) Discount

 

52. A popular brand of hair conditioners comes in different categories of for different hair say for normal hair and for other categories. Identify the function of leveling in the above example.

a) providing information required by law

b) describe the product and specify its contents

c) grading of products

d) promotion of products

 

53. The advertisement of a tour and travel agency States the following in its advertisement… visit Jaisalmer the golden city visit Jaipur the pink City visit Udaipur the city of lakes what is being marketed by the agency through the advertisement?

a) Experience

b) place

c) Ideas

d) service

 

54. Buy 2 get 1 free is printed on the label of the package of toothpaste .Which labelling function is being performed by this statement?

a) Describe the product

b) identification of the brand

c) grading of product

d) sales promotion

 

55. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the various aspects of marketing mix?

a) The advantage of registering trademark is to get exclusive legal rights for its use and no other form can use this mark to sale similiar goods.

b) Promotion mix refers to the decisions related to sales promotion tools used by an organisation to achieve its objectives

c) Product mix includes activities that are involved in transferring the ownership to customers and to make the product available at the right place at the right time.

d) None of the above

 

56. Buy appliances worth rupees 15000 and get a discount voucher of rupees 3000 which of the following sales promotion activity is being here?

a) Discount

b) usable benefits

c) Rebate

d) Quantity gift

 

57. Ultimate televisions limited is offering its 50 TV sets at a discount of rupees 10000 for a period of two months beginning from 15th February 2021.which of the following sales promotion activity is being used by ultimate televisions limited.

a) Discount

b) Refund

c) Rebate

d) Quantity gift

 

58. ________refers to producing goods of predetermined specifications which help in achieving uniformity and consistency in the output.

a) Standardization

b) packaging

c) Labeling

d) Grading

 

59. Which of the following statements is true about the organizing function of management?

a) Departmentalization is the first step in the process of organising

b) pricing for discourages creativity among the managers

c) organising allows a business enterprise to accommodate changes in the business environment.

d) All of the above

 

60. Which type of organisational structure is the most suitable when the size of the organisation is large and is producing one line of product?

a) Functional

b) Divisional

c) Both

d) none

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 12 Biology 2021-22

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 12 Biology 2021-22

 

Time: 1.30 hour

Maximum marks-35

Note-All the questions bear equal marks. You have to attempt all the questions. Read the question attentively and choose correct answer from the multiple choices given below.

Section A (attempt any 15)

1. Embryo sac is related to ovule as__________ is related to an anther.

a) Stamen

b) Filament                       

c) Pollen grain

d) Androecium

 

2. The coconut water from tender coconut is-

a) cellular endosperm

b) free nuclear endosperm

c) both cellular and nuclear endosperm

d) nuclear embryo

 

3. Pollen grains are preserved as fossils because of presence of –

a) cellulose

b) sporopollenin             

c) pectocellulose

d) lignin

 

4. Penetration of the sperm in the ovum is followed by-

a) formation of first polar body

b) comletion of meiosis  II

c) first meiosis

d) dissolution of zona pellucid

 

5. How many type of gametes would be produced if the genotype of a parent is AaBB?

a) 1

b) 2                          

c) 3

d) 4

 

6. Which of the following amino acid substitution is responsible for causing  sickle cell anemia ?

a) Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in alfa globin chain at sixth position

b) Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in beta globin chain at 7th position

c) Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in situs judi slot globin chain at sixth position

d) Glutamic acid is replaced by valine in beta globin chain at sixth position.

 

7. Which of the following combination of chromosomes numbers represents the correct sex determination pattern in honey bees?

a) male 32, female 16 

b) male 16,  female 32              

c) male 31 , female 32 

d) female 31 ,male 30

 

8. In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when –

a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor.

b) repressor binds to operator

c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator.

d) lactose is present and it binds to the operator.

 

9. At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in human female ?

a) at puberty

b) during menarch              

c) during menopause

d) during embryonic development

 

10. The spermatogonia divides by-

a) meiotic division

b) mitosis division           

c) both mitotic and meiotic division   

d) none of the above

 

11. Family planning programme in India was initiated in-

a) 1920

b) 1930                 

c) 1950

d) 1951

 

12. Ovulation does not occure in lactating mother because of the release of-

a) inhibin

b) prolactin                

c) prostaglandins

d) oxytocin

 

13. The allels which appear in the first filial generation are called-

a) holandric 

b) recessive                      

c) dominant  

d) lethal

 

14. What will be the phenotypic features in first filial situs judi slot generation after a cross between a homozygous female and a heterozygous male for a single character-

a) 3:1 

b) 1:2:1                   

c) 1:1

d) none of these

 

15. A couple has 5 daughters. What is the possibility of their having a son next time?

a) 50%

b) 100%                      

c) 25%

d) 40%

 

16. If one parent belongs to A blood group and the other to O blood group,their children possibly represent-

a) A and B groups

b) AB only                         

c) A and O groups 

d) All four groups

 

17. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide due to the lack of :

a) base

b) sugar                                

c) phosphate group

d) hydroxyl group

 

18. If a double stranded DNA has 20% cytosine, what be the percentage of adenine in it?

a) 20%

b) 40%                    

c) 30%

d) 60%

 

19. Pyrimidines are :

a) dicyclic   

b) monocyclic                    

c) tricyclic

d) tetracyclic

 

20. During translation, activated amino acids get linked to tRNA .This process is commonly known as :

a) charging of tRNA

b) charging of mRNA                  

c) aminoacylation of tRNA  

d) Both a and b                

 

21. Densely packed and transcriptionally inactive part of chromatin is:

a) euchromatin 

b) heterochromatin                     

c) NHC 

d) solenoid fibre

 

22. In the given diagram, identify A,B and C.

a) A –DNA, B-H1 histone,C-Histone octamer                

b) A-RNA, B-cistron, c-DNA

c) A-DNA,B-H3 histone, C-Histone tetramer

d) A-DNA, B-H1 histone, C-Histone octamer

 

Section –B (Attempt any 15)

23. In a fertilized ovule n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in-

a) zygote, nucellus and  endosperm                      

b) endosperm, nucellus and zygote

c) antipodals, zygote and endosperm

d) synergids, antipodals and integuments

 

24. A woman undergoing IVF treatment has blocked fallopian tubes. The technique by which the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres will be transferred into the woman for further development is:

a) ZIFT 

b) GIFT                                  

c) IUT  

d) AI

 

25. The mode of action of the Copper ions of Cu-T an IUD is to-

a) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation

b) decrease the movement of sperms

c) increase the movement of sperms                      

d) make the cervix hostile to the sperms

 

26. To produce 400 seeds ,the number of meiotic divisions required will be:

a) 800    

b) 1600                   

c) 400 

d) 200

 

27. In Snapdragon ,RR is phenotypically red flowers, rr is white and Rr is pink. Select the phenotypic ratio in F1 generation when a cross is performed between  RR  and  Rr:

a) 1 red:2 pink: 1white                 

b) 2-pink :1 white             

c) 2 red : 2pink                            

d) all pink

 

28. Which structure in the ovary will remain functional after implantation of pre-embryo in uterus?

a) tertiary follicle    

b) corpus luteum                      

c) primary follicle                   

d) grafian follicle

 

29. Which cellular process shown below occurs in nucleus?

a) DNA replication               

b) Translation—Initiation            

c) Translation—Elongation   

d) Translation—termination

 

30. The thalamus contributes to the fruit formation in-

a) tomato           

b) apple                             

c) orange                             

d) mango

 

31. RNA is the genetic material in:

a) prokaryotes    

b) eukaryotes                     

c) Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)

d) amoeba

 

32. Spiny and sticky pollen grains and attractively coloured flowers are associated with:

a) hydrophily                     

b) entomophily                   

c) ornithophily                    

d) anaemophily

 

33. Which hormone induces the rupture of mature graafian follicle?

a) FSH                                 

b) Gn RH                          

c) progesterone                    

d) LH

 

34. The function of labeled part X is:

a) dehiscence  

b) mechanical                           

c) protection    

d) nutrition

 

35. Mendelian disorders can be detected by_________.

a) idiogram   

b) karyotype                      

c) amniocentesis                       

d) pedigree analysis

 

36. A girl is colourblind.What type of her parents would be?

a) mother is carrier, fatheris normal

b) mother is carrier, father is colourblind

c) father is colourblind , mother is normal

d) mother is colourblind ,father is normal

 

37. Which of the following diseases cannot be diagnosed by amniocentesis?

a) Down s syndrome   

b) Sickle cell disease              

c) Jaundice                                                    

d) Cystic fibrosis

 

38. Abortion can be safely done about weeks of pregnancy:

a) 4                                         

b) 12                              

c) 8 -10                                     

d) 15 – 18

 

39. The Law of Segregation is also called Law of_________.

a) Probability                                 

b) Purity of gametes                     

c) Punnet hypothesis                   

d) Independent assortment

 

40. The double helix structure of DNA was proposed by:

a) Griffith 

b) Watson and Crick                     

c) Chargaff                                 

d) Hershey and chase

                               

Section—C (Attempt any 5 questions)

Question No. 41 to 45have two statements—Assertion (A) and Reason (R) .Answer these questions selecting the correct option given below-

Tick A if both A and R are true and R is crrect explanation of A.

Tick B if both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.

Tick C if A is true but R is false.

Tick D if A is false but R is true.

41. Assertion:-Lactational amenorrhea is the natural method of contraception.

     Reason: It increases the killing of sperms.

Answer: C

 

42. Assertion: Saheli ,an oral contraceptive pills for females ,contains a steroid.

Reason : It is a once a week pill with very few side effects.

Answer: D

 

43. Assertion: Adenine cannot pair with cytosine.

Reason: Adenine and cytosine do not have complementarity between their respective hydrogen donor and hydrogen acceptor sites.

Answer: A

 

44. Assertion: The genetic code is degenerate.

Reason: For a particular amino acid more than one codon can be used.

Answer: A

 

45. Assertion: Turner s syndrome is caused due to absence of the X and Y sex chromosome.

Reason: Such individuals show masculine as well as feminine development.

Answer: D

 

46. Assertion: Overpopulation has become a serious problem in developing countries.

Reason: It leads to exhaustion of natural situs judi slot online terpercaya 2022 mudah menang resources causes unemployment and increases pollution.

Answer: A

 

47. Assertion: In human male, testes are extra abdominal lie in scrotal sacs.

Reason: Scrotum keeps testicular temperature lower than inner region for normal spermatogenesis.

Answer: A

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 12 Economics 2021-22

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 12 Economics 2021-22

 

Time: 1.30 hours

Maximum Marks-40

General instructions

> There are a total 60 questions in this paper out of 50 questions are to be attempted.

> This paper is divided into three sections.

>Section A-contains 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

>Section B contains 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

>Section C contains 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.

>All questions carry equal marks

 

Section-A

1. Inventory is a _____ concept whereas the change in inventory is a______ concept.

a) stock, flow

b) flow, stock

c) stock, stock

d) flow, flow

 

2. Supply of money refers to…….

a) currency held by the public

b) currency held by the Reserve bank of India

c) currency held by the public and demand deposit with commercial banks

d) currency held in the government account

 

3. Who regulates money supply in India!

a) Government of India

b) RBI

c) commercial banks

d) Planning commission

 

4. Which one of the following is not a capital expenditure?

a) loans advanced by world bank      

b) construction of school building

c) Repayment of loans

d) Purchase of metro coaches from Japan 

 

5. Money supply include…..

a) All deposits in a banks

b) Only demand deposits in bank

c) One time deposits in banks

d) currency with the banks

 

6. Which of the following is not the function of slot gacor hari ini the central bank?

a) banking facilities to government

b) banking facilities to public

c) lending to government

d) lending to commercial banks

 

7. Primary deficit in a govt. budget will be zero, when________.

a) Revenue deficit is zero

b) Net interest payments are zero

c) Fiscal deficit is zero

d) Fiscal deficit is equal to zero

 

8. The non tax revenue in the following is…

a) Export duty

b) Import duty

c) Dividend

d) Excise

 

9. Which of the following is a direct tax?

a) corporation tax

b) Entertainment tax

c) Excise duty

d) Service tax

 

10. Direct tax is called direct because is collected directly from

a) The producers on goods produced

b) sellers on goods sold

c) the buyers of goods

d) the income earners

 

11. Which of the following is not a revenue receipt?

a) recovery of loans

b) foreign grants

c) profits of public enterprises

d) Wealth tax

 

12. A company located in India receives a loan from a company located abroad. How is this transaction recorded in India’s balance of payments account?

a) credit side of current account

b) debit side of current account

c) credit side of capital account

d) debit side of capital account

 

13. Foreign exchange transactions situs slot online terbaik 2021 which are independent of other transactions in the balance of payments account are called.___

a) current transaction

b) capital transaction

c) autonomous transaction

d) accommodating transactions

 

14. Which of the following statement is not true?

a) Borrowings from the Asian Development Bank by the government in an accommodating transaction.

b) Loans given to Sri Lanka by the government is an accommodating transaction

c) Buying of machinery from Japan  is an accommodating transaction

d) Borrowing from public is an accommodating transaction.

 

15. _______is the situation when the imports of goods and more than the exports of goods.

a) Trade surplus

b) trade deficit

c) Both

d) none

 

16. An Indian real estate company receives rent from Google in New York. This transaction would be recorded on…… side of………. account.

a) credit, current

b) debit, capital

c) credit, capital

d) debit, current

 

17. An Indian company located in India invests in a company located abroad. This transaction is entered in India’s balance of payments account on_____.

a) credit side of current account

b) debit side of current account

c) credit side of capital account

d) debit side of capital account

 

18. Demand deposits include______

a) Saving account deposits and fixed deposits

b) Saving account deposits and current account deposits

c) Account deposits and fixed deposits

d) All types of deposits

 

19. __________ is the main source of money supply in an economy.

a) Central Bank

b) commercial Bank

c) both

d) Government

 

20. Which of the following statement is true?

a) All Financial institutions are banking institutions

b) RBI has the complete authority to issue currency notes

c) The Government of India issues currency notes

d) Banking institutions issue currency notes.

 

21. India entered the…… stage of demographic transition after the year 1921.

a) Forth

b) second

c) Third

d) first

 

22. During British period Indian economy was____.

a) semi-feudal economy

b) disintegrated economy

c) colonial economy

d) all of the above

 

23. During British regime which one of the following works was not performed?

a) establishment of Railways

b) establishment of telephone system

c) establishment of wireless system

d) establishment of metro in Delhi

 

24. First attempt to estimate the national income in India during British period was made by…

a) Findlay Shirras

b) William Digby

c) Dadabhai Naroji

d) V.K.R.V RAO

 

Section-B

25. Duration of second five year plan in India was…

a) 1950-55

b) 1951-56

c) 1956-61

d) 1953-58

 

26. Main element of green revolution is…

a) HYV seeds

b) use of fertilizers

c) extension of irrigation facilities

d) all of the above

 

27. Founder of green revolution is….

a) Norman E.Borlaug

b) M.S Swaminathan

c) Gerri Baker

d) none

 

28. Which of the following elements is not related with green revolution?

a) Improved seeds

b) New strategy for agriculture

c) Fertilizers

d) increase in population

 

29. Which crop was benefited most by green revolution?

a) Wheat

b) Tea

c) Cotton

d) Oil seeds

 

30. Which of the following is not true regarding the importance of agriculture in the Indian economy?

a) Main source of structural unemployment

b) Contribution in national income

c) Base of industrialization

d) Base of economic development

 

31. In how many categories industries were divided in industrial policy 1956?

a) 3

b) 2

c) 5

d) 4

 

32. Process of industrialization was started in India in____.

a) First plan

b) second plan

c) Third plan

d) Fourth plan

 

33. New economic policy 1991 is also called…

a) L-Turn policy

b) S-Turn policy

c) U-Turn policy   

d) none

 

34. New economic policy includes_____.

a) Liberalization

b) Privatization

c) Globalization

d) all of these

 

 

 35. What kind of Tax is GST?

a) Direct tax

b) Indirect tax

c) depends on the type of goods and services

d) none

 

36. Which of the following statement is not true regarding the benefit of privatization?

a) less political intervention

b) Improvement in economic efficiency and technical efficiency.

c) Destabilisation of economy

d) Increased accountability

 

37. Which of the following statement is not true regarding the benefit of GST?

a) GST provides a comprehensive and wider coverage of input credit set off you can use the service tax credit for the payment of tax on sales of goods etc.

b) All indirect taxes in state and Central level have been included by GST

c) Uniformity of tax rates across the state

d) Ensure better compliance due to aggregate tax rate reduction.

 

38. With which disparity of income and its distribution are associated?

a) Absolute poverty

b) Relative poverty

c) chronic poverty

d) all of the above

 

39. In which category the loan taken for buying agricultural equipment is generally put

a) Short term loan

b) Medium term loan 

c) long term loan

d) All of the above

 

40. Education increases peoples.

a) Productivity

b) skill

c) Income

d) all of the above

 

41. Which of the following statements is true?

a) M1 is the most liquid measure of money supply

b) M2 is the most liquid measure of money supply

c) M3 is the most liquid measure of money supply

d) All the statements are true

 

42. Which of the following is not the function of the central bank?

a) banking facilities to government

b) banking facilities to public

c) lending to government

d) lending to commercial banks

 

43. Fiscal deficit equals….

a) primary deficit minus interest payments

b) primary deficit plus interest payments

c) total budget expenditure minus total budget receipt

d) none

 

44. Primary deficit in a government budget is____

a) revenue expenditure-revenue receipts

b) total expenditure – total receipt

c) revenue deficit-interest payments

d) fiscal deficit – interest payments

 

45. Which of the following statements is true?

a) expenditure on Ujjwal Yojana launched by the government is an example of capital expenditure

b) expenditure on digital Yojana launched by the government is an example of revenue expenditure

c) expenditure on Ujjwal Yojana launched by the government is an example of deferred revenue expenditure

d) none of the statements are correct

 

46. Which of the following is a source of capital receipt?

a) foreign donations

b) dividends

c) Disinvestment

d) Indirect taxes

 

47. In British India cloth industry was concentrated at______.

a) Ahemdabad

b) Hyderabad

c) Bengaluru

d) Ghaziabad

 

48. National Development council has been constituted in…

a) 1950

b) 1947

c) 1951

d) 1952

 

Section-C

49. Indian Planning commission was constituted in…..

a) 1947

b) 1950 

c) 1951 

d) 1971

 

50. Which of the following statement is not true about the characteristics of planning?

a) maximum utilization of resources

b) applicable on the whole economy

c) Central planning authority

d) no interference by the state

 

51. Plan holiday period was….

a) 1961-64

b) 1966-69

c) 1972-75 

d) 1978-81

 

52. Which of the following statements is not true about the planning commission?

a) Planning commission of India was established on 15th March 1952

b) Its objective was to evaluate the physical capital and human resources and on this basis make programs for the plant development and its evaluation

c) The planning commission of India has now been dissolved in 2015

d) It was replaced by National institution for transforming India aayog

 

53. Green revolution implies….

a) increase in area under rice crops

b) increase in area under all the crops

c) increase in area under food grains crops

d) increase in production of food grains in short period

 

54. Fixation of maximum land ceiling is one type of….

a) Technical reform

b) institutional reform

c) structural reform 

d) market reform

 

55. The most benefit state due to green revolution is…

a) Odisha

b) Bihar

c) Kerela

d) Punjab

 

56. To increase the annual growth rate of industries effort should be made for..

a) full utilisation of production capacity

b) use of modern technology

c) industrial peace

d) all of the above

 

57. Problem of small scale industries is

a) shortage of raw material

b) inadequate  use of capacity

c) shortage of capital and credit

d) all of the above

 

58. Trade policy was made liberal in India in____

a) 1990

b) 1991

c) 1992

d) 1993

 

59. Need for import substitution policy is due to…

a) shortage of foreign exchange

b) adverse balance of trade

c) devaluation of money

d) all of the above

 

 

60. Features of new EXIM policy are..

a) evolution of quantitative restriction on export

b) special incentives on exports of agricultural products

c) improvements in facilities of special economic zones

d) all of the above

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 10 English Elective (184) 2021-22

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 10 English Elective (184) 2021-22

Time Allowed: 1.30 hour

Maximum Marks-40

 

Q. Read the passage given below and answer the question no. 1 to 6.

1) Overpowering prey is a challenge for creatures that do not have limbs. Some species like Russell’s viper inject poison. Some others opt for an alternative non-chemical method – rat snakes, for instance, catch and push their prey against the ground, while pythons use their muscle power to crush their prey to death. But snakes can’t be neatly divided into poisonous and non-poisonous categories.

2) Even species listed as non-poisonous aren’t completely free of poison. The common Sand Boa, for instance, produces secretions particularly poisonous to birds. So the species doesn’t take any chance it crushes its prey and injects poison as an extra step.

3) Do vipers need poison powerful enough to kill hundreds of rats with just one drop? After all, they eat only one or two at a time.

4) While hunting animals try their worst to kill most efficiently, their prey use any trick to avoid becoming a meal, such as developing immunity to poison. For instance, Californian ground squirrels are resistant to Northern Pacific rattlesnake poison.

5) Competition with prey is not the only thing driving snakes to evolve more and more deadly poison. Snakes also struggle to avoid becoming prey themselves.

6) Some snake killers have partial immunity to poison. Famously. mongooses are highly resistant to cobra poison, and with their speed and agility, kill snakes fearlessly. It would be the death of cobras as species if they didn’t evolve a more deadly poison to stop mongooses.

7) Poison has another important role. It’s an extreme meat softener; specific enzymes break up the insides of the prey. Normally, a reptile depends on the sun’s warm rays to aid digestion.

8) But I wonder if we cannot use venom in our favour. In remote parts of India, local hospitality often involves leather-tough meat. I chew and chew until my jaws ache. If I spit it out or refuse, our hosts would be offended, I swallow like a python stuffing a deer down its throat and hope I don’t choke. If only I had poison.

 

On the basis of your understanding of the passage answer the given questions.

 

1. Which species of snakes inject poison as an extra step?

a) Viper

b) Cobra

c) python

d) sand boa

 

2. Poision ……..meat.

a) enhances taste of

b) hardens

c) softens

d) breaks down

 

3. Snakes also struggle to avoid becoming……. themselves

a) Killer

b) predator

c) deadly

d) prey

 

4. The synonym of the word deadly is

a) Lethal

b) cruel

c) violent

d) brutal

 

5. The antonym of the word resistant is……..

a) Opposing

b) Defiant

c) Susceptible 

d) Unyielding

 

6. Californian squirrels are …….. rattle snake poison.

a) Afraid of

b) Helpless against     

c) Resistant to 

d) Indifferent to

 

7. For overpowering its prey rat snake uses a………

a) Chemical method

b) Non chemical method

c) Both a and b

d) none of these

 

8. Antonym of specific word is…….

a) Stuffing

b) General

c) Definite

d) Particular

 

Q. Read the passage given below: (9 to 14)

1) On 24 June 1859, Emperors Napoleon III and Franz Joseph I were engaged in the Battle of Solferino, commanding a combined total of about 2,70,000 troops onto the field for a single day of battle. Nearly 40,000 were either dead, injured, or missing and many of them were simply left to die on the battlefield. Later, spectators crowded the fields, looking for loved ones, searching for items they could sell, or for simply taking in the horrors of the battle. A Swiss businessman and social activist Jean Henri Dunant, who was travelling in Solferino, witnessed all this.

2) Jean Henri Dunant witnessed the atrocities of war as well as the helplessness of the countries not prepared or equipped to ease the suffering of those who had been injured in the Battle of Solferino. Dunant organised a group of volunteers to help bring water and food to the injured, to assist with medical treatment, or to write letters to the families of those who were dying. He also urged the public to create an organisation which would assist the wounded, regardless of which side they fought for during the times of war. From that moment, he wrote the book, A Memory of Solferino. His writing inspired countless others to rally behind him in the creation of the International Federation of the Red Cross.

3) The modern day Red Cross began by devoting itself largely to the acts of disaster relief and epidemic treatment. This effort it continues to this day. One of the easiest ways you can help the Red Cross is to make sure you are able to donate blood and make an appointment at the Red Cross website. But donating blood isn’t the only way you can help out-the Red Cross also encourages you to donate your time if you can. This is what the Red Cross wants everyone to know.

On the basis of your understanding of the passage answer the given questions:

 

9. An appropriate subheading to para 2 of the passage is:

a) International federation of The Red cross

b) Functions of the Red cross

c) The contributions of Jean Henry Dunant

d) The battle of solferino

 

10.To donate blood one should:

a) Make an appointment with society members

b) Make an appointment at the Red cross website

c) Collect information from patients

d) Collect information from neighbourhood.

 

11. The modern day Red cross does not deal with:

a) Blood donation 

b) Disaster relief

c) Epidemic treatment

d) Writing a book

 

12. A word which means act of brutality is:

a) Witnessed

b) Helplessness

c) Atrocity

d) Equipped

 

13. Jean Henry Dunant was the resident of:

a) Solferino 

b) England

c) Switzerland

d) Ireland

 

14. …….. means an individual or group who freely gives time to benefit others

a) Troop

b) Volunteer

c) Public             

d) Organisation

 

Section B (writing and grammar)

15. Which is the vital part of the letter which is as good as wishing the person ?

a) salutation 

b) Enclosure

c) Subject

d) Reference

 

16. How will you end the main body of a formal letter?

a) By showing your love for the recipient

b) By discussing the weather in your city

c) By saluting him or her again

d) By telling the recipient what he should be doing next

 

17. If you do not know the recipient’s name how would you address the person?

a) Dear Mr. or Mrs.

b) Hello

c) Dear sir or dear madam

d) My dear

 

18. The purpose of writing a letter to the editor is…..

a) To express one’s request

b) To give warning about the issue

c) To express one’s opinion or give comment on a current issue

d) To inform the readers about a certain issue

 

19. The main point of a letter is written in………part.

a) Post script

b) Closing

c) Heading

d) Opening

 

20. Many a man…….come to welcome her.

a) Were

b) Is

c) Are

d) Has

 

21. He has……..friends as he is an introvert.

a) Many

b) Few

c) a few

d) several

 

22. I as well as my brothers……… diligent.

a) Are

b) Were

c) Was

d) Am

 

23. He said to me,” Will you have a cup of tea?”

The indirect speech of above mentioned direct speech will be……….

a) He told me that I will have a cup of tea.

b) He asked me if you will have a cup of tea.

c) He asked me if I would have a cup of tea.

d) He said would I have a cup of tea.

 

24. She …….play hopscotch when she was 15 year old.

a) Should

b) Would

c) May

d) Can

 

Section C (literature)

Q> Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.

I knew that the opressor must be liberated just as surely as oppressed. A man who takes away another man’s freedom is a prisoner of hatred . He is locked behind the bars of prejudice and narrow mindedness. I am not totally free if I am taking away someone else freedom just as surely as I am not free when my freedom is taken from me. The oppressed and the opressor alike are robbed of their humanity.

 

25. He refers to………..

a) Nelson Mandela

b) Oppressed

c) Opressor

d) None of these

 

26. The oppressor is the victim of

a) Prejudice

b) Narrow-mindedness

c) Prejudice and narrow mindedness

d) Luxury

 

27. In true sense who is free?

a) One who takes away someone else’s freedom

b) One who is prejudiced

c) One who is selfish

d) One who does not take away others’ freedom

 

28. In the above extract the speaker says that……….

a) Only oppressor is at fault

b) Only oppressed is at fault.

c) Opperssor and oppressed both are at fault.

d) None of these

 

Q> Read the following extract and answer the questions based on it.

Goodness!  Wasn’t there anything she could do.  If only she could tell Wanda she had not meant to hurt her feelings.  She turned around and stole a glance at Peggy but she did not look up. She seemed to be studying hard . Well, whether Peggy felt badly or not ,she Maddie had to do something.  She had to find Wanda Petronski. Maybe she had not yet moved away.

 

29. ‘She’ in the first line is……..

a) Wanda

b) Peggy

c) Miss mason

d) Maddie

 

30. Maddie wanted to lessen her feelings of………

a) Passion

b) Guilt

c) Sadness

d) None of these

 

31. ……….. seemed to be studying hard.

a) Maddie

b) Peggy

c) Both a and b

d) None of these

 

32. The word glance means……..

a) A deep look

b) A harsh look 

c) A quick look

d) A funny look

 

Q> Read the following stanza carefully and answer the questions based on it.

But if it had to perish twice,

I think I know enough of hate

To say that for destruction ice

Is also great

And would suffice.

 

33. The rhyming scheme of the stanza is…….

a) Ababb

b) abcab

c) aabbc

d) Ababa

 

34. ………..is the synonym of parish word.

a) Destruction

b) Construction

c) destruct 

d) None of these

 

35. ‘It’ in the first line stands for…….

a) Poem

b) Poet

c) World

d) Hate

 

36. According to the poet …….. is enough for the destruction of the world.

a) Affection

b) Man

c) Science

d) jealousy

 

Q> Study the given extract and answer the questions that follow.

I think he knew I made a little money this way but he didn’t seem to mind. Anil made money by fits and starts. He would borrow one week, lend the next.  He kept worrying about his next cheque but as soon as it arrived, he would go out and celebrate. It seems he wrote for magazines, a  queer way to make a living.

 

37. As soon as it arrived. ‘It’ refers to………

a) Magazines 

b) Money

c) Cheque

d) None of these

 

38. Fits and starts means……….

a) Regularly

b) Irregularly

c) Honestly

d) Dishonestly

 

39. The information in the extract suggests that Anil could be a……..

a) Salaried professional 

b) Freelancer

c) Businessman 

d) Volunteer

 

40. ‘A queer’ means……….

a) General 

b) Strange

c) Simple

d) none of these

 

Attempt the following Questions.

41. The theatrical company shop was situated on…………..

a) Dury lane

b) Druy lane

c) Druri lane

d) Drury lane

 

42. The other dogs ignored tricky because

a) He was ill

b) He was furious

c) He was an an uninteresting object

d) All of the above

 

43. The word harbour in the ball poem does not have a meaning similar to……

a) Port

b) Pier

c) Dock

d) Cargo

 

44. Name the poetic device used in the line ‘in his quiet rage’ in ‘A Tiger in the Zoo’ is………

a) Metaphor

b) Hyperbole

c) Oxymoron  

d) Personification

 

45. What are the two negative things that Frost used as carriers of positivity?

a) Snow , dust 

b) Hemlock tree, snow

c) Snow, crow   

d) Hemlock tree ,crow

 

46. In which city were Anne and Margot sent to live with their grandmother?

a) Berlin 

b) Munich

c) Aachen

d) Burn

 

47. Lencho’s field looked as if it were covered with……….

a) Locusts

b) Water

c) Salt

d) Ice

 

48. The young seagull’s family had landed on the………..

a) Tree on the island

b) Green floor of the sea

c) Iceberg in the sea

d) Ship in the sea

 

49. What urged the young seagull to make his first flight?

a) Hunger

b) sight of fish

c) Courage 

d) Both a and b

 

50. Hari Singh attempted at being friend with Anil by……….

a) teasing him

b) introducing himself

c) flattering him

d) All of these

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 11 Biology 2021-22

Term 1 Sample Paper Class 11 Biology(044) 2021-22

Class-XI

Time: 1.30 hour/M.M.-35

Note: All the questions value equal marks. Attempt all the questions. Tick the correct answer out of the given 4 choices.

Which of the following is a class of animal kingdom?

a) primata

b) Mammalia ✓               

c) Spindales

d) poales

 

2. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non –living things on the basis of their ability for-

a) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution

b) consciousness✓

c) growth and movement

d) reproduction

Or

Regeneration can be observed in-

a) fungi

b) planaria                        

c) hydra

d) both b and c✓

 

3. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles, and birds are kept in the same________.

a) class

b) order                       

c) phylum ✓

d) genus

 

4. Taxon is the unit of-

a) species

b) order                      

c) taxonomy ✓

d) genus

 

5. Dicot and monocot plants are placed under a common taxonomic category known as-

a) bryophytes

b) angiosperms ✓    

c) gymnosperms

d) arthropoda

 

6. In members of which kingdom nuclear membrane is absent?

a) plantae

b) monera   ✓            

c) fungi

d) protista

 

7. Who was the founder of five kingdom system of classification?

a) Aristotle

b) T.O. Diener             

c) H.Whittaker ✓

d) C.Linnaeus

 

8. Which of the following statement is incorrect about viruses?

a) Viruses contain either RNA or DNA

b) Viruses do not have their own metabolic system

c) Bacteriophages are double stranded DNA viruses

d) TMV contains both RNA and DNA ✓

 

9. Viruses that infect the bacteria are termed as-

a) Mycophages

b) Bacteriophages  ✓             

c) Cyanophages

d) both (a) and (c)

 

Or

Lichens show symbiotic relationship between-

a) Algae and fungi ✓

b) Algae and bacteria          

c) fungi and bacteria

d) fungi and viruses

 

10. The association of fungi with the roots of higher plants is called-

a) Lichens

b) Mycorrhiza  ✓                 

c) slime mould

d) Neurospora

 

11. Bacterial cell divides every one minute become double. It takes 15 minutes a cup to be 1/4th How much time will it take to fill the cup?

a) 30 minutes

b) 45 minutes            

c) 60 minutes

d) 17 minutes ✓          

 

12. The bacteria were discovered by-

a) Robert Koch

b) A.V.Leeuwenhoek  ✓             

c) Stanley

d) Louis Pasteur

 

13. The viruses are considerd as living because they-

a) multiply in host cells✓

b) carry anaerobic respiration              

c) cause infection

d) carry digestion

 

14. After fertilization ovules turn into –

a) fruit

b) seed ✓                     

c) cone

d) embryo

 

15. Female gametophyte in angiosperms is called-

a) endosperm

b) carpel                     

c) ovule

d) embryo sac ✓

 

16. A flower has stamens only as a reproductive part, is known as –

a) bisexual

b) hermaphrodite                    

c) unisexual ✓

d) vegetative

 

17. Timber for furniture is obtained from-

a) mustard

b) cotton                       

c) teak ✓

d) coriander

Or

Which of the following plants possess naked seeds?

a) pteridophytes

b) angiosperms                

c) bryophytes

d) gymnosperms✓

 

18. Primary root directly grows from-

a) plumule

b) radicle ✓                    

c) pedicel

d) stamen

 

19. In the mustard plant root system is present _________

a) nodulated

b) prop                       

c) tap ✓

d) fibrous

 

20. Which is not modification of root?

a) rhizome of ginger ✓

b) sweet potato                

c) prop

d) carrot

 

21. The nucleus of cell was discovered by-

a) Robert Hook

b) Camillo Golgi                  

c) Schwann

d) Robert Brown✓

Or

The smallest cell is

a) WBC

b) Ostrich egg                  

c) Mycoplasma ✓

d) RBC

 

22. Which of the following cell organelle contains hydrolytic enzyme

a) Endoplasmic reticulum

b) Lysosome✓                

c) Vacuole

d) Mitocondria

 

23. Which of the following cell organelle is known as the power house of cell?

a) Nucleus

b) Chloroplast                

c) Golgi Apperatus

d) Mitochondria✓

 

24. The type of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cells is-

a) 70S ✓

b) 80S               

c) both 70S and 80S

d) none of these

 

25. New cells generate from –

a) Abiotic material

b) pre-existing cells  ✓           

c) Bacterial fermentation

d) regenration of old cells

Or

The plastids that give the different colours other than green are called

a) somoplasts

b) chromoplasts ✓            

c) chloroplasts

d) leuchoplasts

 

26. Cell theory was given by-

a) Leeuwenhoek

b) Aristotle              

c) Schleiden and Schwann✓ 

d) Robert Brown

 

 

27. How many chromosomes are present in human diploid cell?

a) 13 pairs 

b) 23 pairs  ✓                

c) 3 pairs

d) 10 pairs

 

28. Which one of the following plasted stores the protein in maize seed?

a) chromoplast

b) chloroplast              

c) amyloplast

d) aleuroplast✓

 

29. The structures like heap of coins present in chloroplasts are called –

a) cristae

b) grana  ✓                   

c) ribosomes

d) centrosome

 

30. Plasma membrane is-

a) permeable

b) selective semi permeable✓      

c) impermeable

d) none of these

 

Assertion –Reason type questions

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is the correct explaination of the assertion.

b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.

c) Assertion is true and Reason are false.

d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

 

31. A –Lichens do not grow in polluted area.

R-Lichens secrete carbonic acid and oxalic acid on barren rocks.

Answer:(B)

 

32. A-Unicellular eukaryotes are included in Monera.

R-Unicellular eukaryotes have 70S ribosomes.

Answer (D)

 

33. A-The storage region of maize seed is whitish or yellow.

R-It is rich in protein.

Answer: (C)

 

34. A-lysosomes help in digestion of food particles in the animal cells.

R-They have respiratory enzymes.

Answer: (C)

 

35. A-Corm grows vertically beneath soil surface.

R-It bears nodes internodes slot online buds and green leaves.

Answer(C)