Term 1 Sample Paper Social Science for Class 10 2021-22
Sample Question Paper 2021-22
Term I Class 10
Social Science
Time-90 Min/Max Marks-40
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.
SECTION – A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)
1. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society in Berne?
a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
b) Giuseppe Mazzini
c) Count Cavour
d) Otto von Bismark
2. Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?
a) Unification of Germany
b) Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain
c) Unification of Italy
d) Unification of Vietnam
3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following options:
a) It was a coalition of Prussian states formed to manage political alliances.
b) Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association.
c) It was a Custom Union at the initiative of Prussia.
d) It helped to awaken and raise national sentiment in Europe.
4. Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and ended with victory and unification of Germany?
a) Austria, Poland and France
b) Austria, Denmark and France
c) Austria, Turkey and France
d) Austria, England and France
5. Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in earlynineteenth-century Europe.
a) Romanticism
b) Liberalism
c) Socialism
d) Rationalism
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in:
a) Groundnut- Assam
b) Tea- Gujarat
c) Coffee- Karnataka
d) Sugarcane – Chhattisgarh
7. The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called_________.
Choose the correct option:
a) Barren land
b) Forest land
c) Grazing land
d) Fallow land
8. Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?
a) Kyoto Protocol
b) Montreal Protocol
c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit
d) World Summit on Sustainable Development
9. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
a) Plains
b) Plateaus
c) Islands
d) Mountains
10. Which one of the following human activities has contributed significantly in land degradation?
a) Deforestation
b) Crop rotation
c) Shelter belts
d) Ploughing
11. Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?
a) Nepal
b) India
c) Sri Lanka
d) Bangladesh
12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
a) Reduces socio-economic conflicts
b) Provides ethnic -cultural development
c) Allows people to enjoy specific rights
d) Restricts supremacy of one party
13. Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium has a third kind of government as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:
a) Democratic Government
b) Socialist Government
c) Community Government
d) Liberal Government
14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’?
a) India
b) Sri Lanka
c) USA
d) Belgium
15. Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
a) It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive.
b) It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level.
c) It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.
d) It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.
16. In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to legislate on all those subjects which are included in the:
a) Union list
b) State list
c) Concurrent list
d) Residuary subjects
17. Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under Article 371A of the Constitution of India
a) Nagaland
b) Rajasthan
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu
18. Which one the following is an example of Primary Sector activity?
a) Baking
b) Outsourcing
c) Farming
d) Banking
19. Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and above age group?
a) Net Attendance Ratio
b) Enrolment Rate
c) Literacy Rate
d) Drop out Ratio
20. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
a) The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
b) The total income of the country divided by its total population.
c) The total income of all the residents of the country.
d) The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.
21. Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?
a) Improvement in science, information and technology
b) Improvement in health, education and income
c) Improvement in information and communication
d) Improvement in investment, finance and technology
22. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.” Which of the following is the essence of this statement?
a) Economic development
b) Human Development
c) Sustainable Development
d) National Development
23. Which of the following examples fall under an organized sector?
a) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
b) An engineer getting all employment benefits.
c) A cleaning staff in a private school
d) A tailor stitching clothes at his home.
24. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee of minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100 days of an employment, the government would have to———————————–
Choose the correct option:
a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days
b) Provide another scheme for the same
c) Pay at least 1/3 percent allowance
d) Provide health care as compensation
SECTION – B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)
25. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following options.
a) Marianna
b) Philip Viet
c) Germania
d) La Italia
26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism?
I. The Balkan region became part of the conflict because of the Ottoman Empire.
II. The region comprised of ethnic groups included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc.
III. British and ethnic nationalities struggled to establish their identity.
a) I & II
b) II & III
c) Only II
d) Only 1
27. Why did the weavers in Silesia revolt against contractors in 1845? Identify the appropriate reason from the following options.
a) Contractors did not pay their dues
b) Contractors appointed few on high posts
c) Contactors used government policies
d) Contractors gave them loans on high interests
28. Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain.
a) In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought war with English Parliament.
b) The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.
c) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales.
d) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of many revolts.
29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below –
- develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall
- is low in humus content
- found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
a) Forest soil
b) Yellow soil
c) Black soil
d) Laterite soil
30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in?
a) Renewable resources
b) Non-renewable resources
c) Actual resources
d) Potential resources
31. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below:
I. It is good for democracy.
II. It creates harmony in different groups
III. It brings transparency in the governance.
IV. It brings socio-political competition among parties.
a) I, II & III
b) II, III & IV
c) I, III & IV
d) I, II & IV
32. How does Judiciary act as an umpire in a federal nation?
a) Judiciary rules over Centre and State
b) Centre and Judiciary work collectively
c) Courts can change structure of Constitution
d) Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution
33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala as the only official language of the state.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to foster their culture, language and religion.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true
34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
I. Information Technology 1. Concurrent List
II. Police 2. Union List
III. Education 3. State List
IV. Defence 4. Residuary Subjects
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
a) I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2
b) I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2
c) I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2
d) I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3
35. Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take the exam? Select the appropriate option.
a) 18
b) 21
c) 22
d) 25
36. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following information.
- Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local Governments.
- It is called as a third tier of the Government.
- The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
a) Federal system
b) Unitary Federal system
c) Decentralised system
d) Unitary system
37. Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?
I. More powers with Centre
II. Residuary subjects with Centre
III. Equal subjects with Centre and States
IV. Currency and Railways with Centre
a) I, III & IV
b) I, II & IV
c) II, III & IV
d) II, III & IV
38. Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution.
I. The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
II. Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution.
III. It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
IV. The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.
a) I &II
b) II & III
c) I & III
d) II & IV
39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development has happened in a country.
Reason (R): Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human Development Index.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
40. Choose the correct option from the following:
List I (Example) List II (Sectors)
a) Courier Tertiary Sector
b) Fisherman Secondary Sector
c) Carpenter Primary Sector
d) Transporter Secondary Sector
41. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from the given options:
| TABLE FOR COMPARISON OF THREE COUNTRIES | |||||
| Countries | Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees) | ||||
| I | II | III | IV | V | |
| Country A | 9500 | 10500 | 9800 | 10000 | 10200 |
| Country B | 500 | 500 | 500 | 500 | 48000 |
| Country C | 5000 | 1000 | 15000 | 4000 | 25000 |
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She calculates average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be
transferred to Country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable
b) Has most equitable distribution of income
c) National income of its citizens is higher
d) Average income of its citizens is lower
42. Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out his Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
a) 12.6
b) 13.5
c) 14.7
d) 15.2
43. A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre salary after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather her employer deducts her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which of the following sectors she is working?
a) Primary Sector
b) Service Sector
c) Organized Sector
d) Unorganised Sector
44. According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in India was
- Primary Sector – 44%
- Secondary Sector – 25%
- Tertiary Sector – 31%
Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high? Select the most suitable option from the following:
a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed
b) Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector
c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors
d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector
45. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Crude oil reserves in the entire world are depleting, we need to find a sustainable substitute for it.
Reason (R): Oil and petrol prices are increasing day by day.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true
46. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work. His wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Which type of employment is this an example?
a) Under employment
b) Seasonal employment
c) Over employment
d) Cyclical employment
SECTION – C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option:
Grimms’ Fairy Tales is a familiar name in Germany. The brothers Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm were born in the German city of Hanau. While both of them studied law, they soon developed an interest in collecting old folktales. They spent six years travelling from village to village, talking to people and writing down fairy tales, which were handed down through the generations. These were popular both among children and adults.
In 1812, they published their first collection of tales. Subsequently, both the brothers became active in liberal politics, especially the movement for freedom of the press. In the meantime, they also published a 33-volume dictionary of the German language.
The Grimm brothers also saw French domination as a threat to German culture and believed that the folktales they had collected were expressions of a pure and authentic German spirit. They considered their projects of collecting folktales and developing the German language as part of the wider effort to oppose French domination and create a German national identity.
47. Why did the Grimm brothers give the tales a readable form without changing their folkloric character? Choose the correct option from the following:
a) The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany.
b) It became a model for the collecting of fantasy tales.
c) It formed the basis for the science of the language.
d) People easily accepted their written adventurous tales.
48. The impact of literary contributions of Grimm brothers was widespread. Identify the best suitable option depicting the same from the following:
a) Development of cities and towns
b) Setting up of new political parties
c) Promotion of ethnic belonging
d) Emergence of socialist ideology
49. Fill in the blank from the given options.
The work of the Grimm Brothers influenced and inspired people to collect tales. They believed in a spirit of ____________ and considered it essential for the reflection of national identity.
a) Culturalism
b) Conservatism
c) Extremism
d) Liberalism
50. Why the foreign domination was considered a threat to nation building? Select the best suitable option from the following in reference to the context.
a) Exploitation of natural resources
b) Erosion of native values and ethos
c) Violence and mass killing of people
d) Spread of new diseases in the country
51. How were the Germans able to connect with their culture? With reference to the above context, infer the appropriate option.
a) Through the feeling of formal way of communication
b) Through the feeling of oneness as European community
c) Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals
d) Through the feeling of coherence in reference to mannerism
52. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion A: Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
Reason (R): Conservative regimes were autocratic.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option:
There has been a gradual shift from cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits, vegetables, oil-seeds and industrial crops. This has led to the reduction in net sown area under cereals and pulses. With the growing population of India, the declining food production puts a big question mark over the country’s future food security.
The competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing etc. and agriculture has resulted in reduction in the net sown area. The productivity of land has started showing a declining trend. Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being held responsible for degrading the soils. Periodic scarcity of water has led to reduction in area under irrigation. Inefficient water management has led to water logging and salinity.
53. One can infer from the above given information that marginal and small farmers have been pushed out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause?
a) Food and fruit crops are expensive in market
b) Shift to multifarious crops according to demand
c) Periodic scarcity of water in many regions
d) Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution
54. Read the following statements and find the correct from the given options:
I. Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern.
II. They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc.
III. Jute is in high demand in the Indian market.
a) I & II
b) II&III
c) III Only
d) II Only
55. According to the information given above, there has been reduction in the net sown area under cereals and pulses. Identify the reason.
a) Lack of markets to sell cereals and pulses
b) Earn more income from non-agricultural sector
c) Need of huge labour in cultivating cereals and pulses
d) Availability of more profits from commercial crops
56. ‘Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being held responsible for degrading the soil.’ Infer the positive effects of these inputs noticed earlier from the following statements.
a) These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity.
b) These are integral to the process of reducing agrarian losses.
c) These inputs can cut the amount of harvestable produce.
d) These are the leading causes of mortality and health problems.
57. There are states in India which are using fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides at excessive level to increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at prominent level from the following options.
a) Karnataka and Kerala
b) Haryana and Punjab
c) Punjab and Gujarat
d) Haryana and Telangana
58. Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food availability. Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct option in reference to the context.
a) To improve the land use pattern
b) To use intensive farming techniques
c) To improve the fertility of soil
d) To fetch more income and high earnings
Section D
(Attempt both the Map based questions)
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.
59. On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following options.
a) Salal
b) Bhakra-Nangal
c) Tehri
d) Rana Pratap Sagar
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the following options.
a) Assam
b) Punjab
c) Bihar
d) Gujarat